Papal Jurisdiction....

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The same question could be reversed: If the RCC claims are so obvious from the supposed evidences provided in threads like these and in RCC apologetics throughout the world, why aren’t we all RC?

Probably the most honest thing anyone in any communion can say is “I’m what I am because I find it to be right, and therefore other things are wrong”, but that’s apparently no fun… 😉
The difference is, I’ve seldom heard Catholics make blanket statements like the OP did. But you raise a valid point indeed. 😃 Many years, sir.
 
The same question could be reversed: If the RCC claims are so obvious from the supposed evidences provided in threads like these and in RCC apologetics throughout the world, why aren’t we all RC?

Probably the most honest thing anyone in any communion can say is “I’m what I am because I find it to be right, and therefore other things are wrong”, but that’s apparently no fun… 😉
So if it isn’t apparent, i.e., the OP states there is NO EVIDENCE, then why bother coming to a Catholic Forum to debate the matter? :hmmm:
 
The same question could be reversed: If the RCC claims are so obvious from the supposed evidences provided in threads like these and in RCC apologetics throughout the world, why aren’t we all RC?
Oh, I dunno…maybe:

Birth/Family.
Ethnic Origin.
Nationality.
Marriage.
History/Politics.
Contraception/Divorce.

Any one these could cause someone to miss (or ignore) the obvious in Scripture and remain Orthodox or convert thereunto. 😛
 
Not trying to start a fight, but how can the RCC claim that the Pope, the bishop of Rome, has jurisdiction over all Christians and in order to be a member of the true church, you must submit to his authority?

If you study early Church history, it’s simple to see that papal supremacy, as it’s understood by the RCC today, did not exist.
The history of the early church is one of extreme heterodoxy. Orthodoxy came about as a result of the church coming together around church bishops, who themselves came together among themselves.

Most prominent of these bishops in terms of consistency of orthodoxy in the early church was the bishop of Rome. He was also politically removed from the controversies that the other main bishops of the east, in Antioch, and Alexandria, and Jerusalem and Constantinople had among themselves, so he was in a position to serve as honest broker.

It was a matter of practice and pragmatism rather than Biblical teaching that led to the theology of the centrality of the Bishop of Rome.

Even today, the current Time Man of the Year is given a certain deference that most Orthodox bishops or Protestant ministers rarely achieve.
When people on the outside want to receive an authentic Christian answer on the matters of the day, the news cameras typically point to Rome first, and then maybe to this or that other Christian leader as an afterthought to show that the range of Christian heterodoxy on the matter.
 
Not trying to start a fight, but how can the RCC claim that the Pope, the bishop of Rome, has jurisdiction over all Christians and in order to be a member of the true church, you must submit to his authority?

If you study early Church history, it’s simple to see that papal supremacy, as it’s understood by the RCC today, did not exist.
In order for your claim to be true, history would have clearly shown a vast amount of concerns,rejections and flat considered a ursupation of Christ by bishops. Where are such sources supporting your view: Did not exist?
 
I would respectfully disagree. The early councils taught the Trinity, etc., but they did not teach papal supremacy. In fact Nicea canon 6 seems to contradict the idea.

The Bishop of Alexanfria’s jurisdiction in Egypt, etc. is compared the Bishop of Rome’s jurisdiction - in his jurisdiction.

Jon
But canon 6, if correct is was not directly written as a reaction to papal jurisdiction. Even if it were,then it clearly shows that the East in several instances failed to adhere,because many went to Rome to have disputes settled. If canon 6 binds a bishop to his local jurisdiction,then it fails to explain why Bishops from hundreds of miles away failed to settle issues in-house?
 
As to any supposed “office” of St. Peter, that is certainly not a point I would appreciate it, though I recognize that this is one of the things that divides us. There is no office of St. Peter or any other apostle.
Just a minute there! What on earth does Acts 2:15-22 say? And, who said it?
At this time, Peter stood up and spoke before all the brethren; a company of about a hundred and twenty were gathered there. 16 Brethren, he said, there is a prophecy in scripture that must needs be fulfilled; that which the Holy Spirit made, by the lips of David, about Judas, who shewed the way to the men that arrested Jesus. 17 Judas was counted among our number, and had been given a share in this ministry of ours. 18 (With the price of his treachery, this man came into possession of a field; and afterwards, when he fell from a height, and his belly burst open, so that he was disembowelled, 19 all Jerusalem heard of it, and the field came to be called, in their language, Haceldama, that is, the Field of Blood.)[4] 20 Well, in the book of Psalms the words are written, Let their camping-place be deserted, and let no man be found to dwell in it. And again, Let another take over his office.[5] 21 There are men who have walked in our company all through the time when the Lord Jesus came and went among us, 22 from the time when John used to baptize to the day when he, Jesus, was taken from us. One of these ought to be added to our number as a witness of his resurrection.
So, in order to defend what amounts to ecclesial apartheid, are you alleging that the offices died with the Apostles? I see absolutely no scriptural or traditional basis for that. Maybe certain of the Orthodox believe so, but that is news to me. Jerusalem is known as the “See of James” to this day. Do you claim that this is somehow not true?
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by dzheremi
As to any supposed “office” of St. Peter, that is certainly not a point I would appreciate it, though I recognize that this is one of the things that divides us. There is no office of St. Peter or any other apostle.
Then explain the unbroken chain of bishops (West/East) in both anicent churches?
 
Oh, I dunno…maybe:

Birth/Family.
Ah, yes. Only Orthodox are born or have families. I forgot how Catholics are birthed directly from St. Peter himself.
Ethnic Origin.
Only Orthodox are from places! Catholics are somehow the most international (they’re everywhere, after all), and at the same time not from anywhere in particular.
Nationality.
Only Orthodox are resident in countries! Catholics just sort of float around in international waters, as God intended.
Marriage.
Nobody else is actually married but Orthodox people (actually I know some Orthodox who would basically agree with this…hahaha). Maybe other people’s marriages are really something more like “commitment communities”, sort of like how Protestants are “ecclesiastical communities” or whatever the term Pope Benedict used a few years ago was.
History/Politics.
What was it that blessed John Henry Newman said – “to have no politics or history whatsoever is to cease to be Protestant”? No…that’s not it…hmmm…
Contraception/Divorce.
Any one these could cause someone to miss (or ignore) the obvious in Scripture and remain Orthodox or convert thereunto. 😛
One man’s “obvious” is another man’s “eisegesis”. You can say we miss the former until the cows come home. I would be more concerned about missing the latter, anyway, since as other RC posters in this thread have rightly noted, anything can be used to argue for/against anything. I mean, let’s get real here: Why would anyone who is not a Catholic care about missing what Catholics claim is obvious? That would make about as much sense as me ranting at Catholics for recognizing HH Pope Tawadros as their Pope. He’s not your Pope, just like RC interpretation of scripture and the fathers that make the modern RC stances seem “obvious” is not anyone else’s interpretation. Again, it’s way more honest to say we just don’t see eye to eye on many things (and won’t) than to pretend that either side is necessarily “obvious” to anyone who isn’t already committed to it.
 
Ah, yes. Only Orthodox are born or have families. I forgot how Catholics are birthed directly from St. Peter himself.

Only Orthodox are from places! Catholics are somehow the most international (they’re everywhere, after all), and at the same time not from anywhere in particular.

Only Orthodox are resident in countries! Catholics just sort of float around in international waters, as God intended.

Nobody else is actually married but Orthodox people (actually I know some Orthodox who would basically agree with this…hahaha). Maybe other people’s marriages are really something more like “commitment communities”, sort of like how Protestants are “ecclesiastical communities” or whatever the term Pope Benedict used a few years ago was.

What was it that blessed John Henry Newman said – “to have no politics or history whatsoever is to cease to be Protestant”? No…that’s not it…hmmm…
Contraception/Divorce.

One man’s “obvious” is another man’s “eisegesis”. You can say we miss the former until the cows come home. I would be more concerned about missing the latter, anyway, since as other RC posters in this thread have rightly noted, anything can be used to argue for/against anything. I mean, let’s get real here: Why would anyone who is not a Catholic care about missing what Catholics claim is obvious? That would make about as much sense as me ranting at Catholics for recognizing HH Pope Tawadros as their Pope. He’s not your Pope, just like RC interpretation of scripture and the fathers that make the modern RC stances seem “obvious” is not anyone else’s interpretation. Again, it’s way more honest to say we just don’t see eye to eye on many things (and won’t) than to pretend that either side is necessarily “obvious” to anyone who isn’t already committed to it.
Of course some cradle Catholics make those same stupid mistakes.

That’s why you should always pay more attention to the converts! :dancing:
 
Not trying to start a fight, but how can the RCC claim that the Pope, the bishop of Rome, has jurisdiction over all Christians and in order to be a member of the true church, you must submit to his authority?

If you study early Church history, it’s simple to see that papal supremacy, as it’s understood by the RCC today, did not exist.
Not all Christians; just Christians belonging to the Catholic Church founded by Jesus, as opposed to a Church founded by a mere man.

You said: “it’s simple to see that papal supremacy, as it’s understood by the RCC today, did not exist.”

Could you please support that statement?
 
Just a minute there! What on earth does Acts 2:15-22 say? And, who said it?
That Judas should be replaced…? That it is right to replace those who have compromised the faith? No problem with any of this. We believe it and follow it. And while I certainly recognize the idea of the “office” as expressed in Acts, there is no support for this idea that all the supposed “powers” or authority given to any particular apostle were thereby passed down to the bishops he ordained by virtue of their having been ordained by him, which seems to be the popular RC understanding of how apostolic succession works. If we believed as you apparently do, we would not have recourse to deal with Patriarchs who must be deposed, as the Copts did as recently as Pope Yusab II (1946-1956), and the Greeks as recently as Patriarch Irenaios (2001-2005), to use two prominent and recent examples.

So, yes, the much-vaunted “Office of St. _____” does not exist, not because there were not men ordained to carry on what the apostles themselves established, but because what the RCC and what the Orthodox understand such passages and events to mean are radically different, and obviously one must be wrong. In deference to where I am posting, I am perfectly fine with letting RCs believe whatever they want about whatever they think “the Office of St. Peter” is, but would also like to call attention to the fact that as there is no “Office of Judas” (or perhaps there are many), I think the passage you’ve quoted is more in line with Orthodox ecclesiology than the modern Catholic. The See of a particular saint certainly exists and there really is someone occupying it, but beyond that any talk of an “office” has to get into the nuts and bolts of how we think of apostolic succession as working, and in that we are just too far apart. St. Mark didn’t pass down anything to HH Pope Tawadros II that he retained of himself (i.e., by virtue of being an apostle), and hence HH Pope Tawadros II does not have any authority that cannot be taken away. We could all be Judas, Peter, or anyone else, and the same goes for all of our Patriarchs, precisely because such an “Office” does not exist. The throne may pass to this one or that one, but it is the faith that must be protected, not the assumed privileges based on who ordained who.
So, in order to defend what amounts to ecclesial apartheid
Well this is a tad bit dramatic, isn’t it? Last I checked, Malan is no saint in any communion.
are you alleging that the offices died with the Apostles?
No. What I’m trying to say as diplomatically as possible is that the RC idea of an “office” which is passed down whereby whosoever should occupy a given chair/see/throne is seen as possessing the rights, powers, privileges, and indeed perhaps even the very person (at least as I have seen some, not all, RCs interpret the infamous statement of Chalcedon that “Peter has spoken through Leo”) of its founder by virtue of having been elevated to the position of occupying that chair/see/throne is erroneous. There is no reason to recognize that as a thing, since it is based upon a conception of apostolic succession that we do not share in common.
Jerusalem is known as the “See of James” to this day. Do you claim that this is somehow not true?
It absolutely is true. The term “See” is just a fancy way of talking about a particular episcopal jurisdiction. Jerusalem is the “See of James” just like Alexandria is the “See of St. Mark”, etc. I think you are confusing the existence of sees tied to historically prominent cities with this idea of the “Office”. From where I’m sitting, they’re not the same thing. Everybody on earth who can read recognizes that the “Holy See” (without qualifiers, in English) refers to the Vatican/the RCC/the headquarters of the Roman Pope, so it’s quite clear that these are things that exist. They have concrete reality in so far as you can point to them and say “there’s the Vatican”, “there’s a Catholic Church”, “there’s where the Pope’s residence is”, etc. Where, then, is “the Office of Peter”? or the “Office of Mark?” or the “Office of anybody”? These are turns of phrase meant to evoke particular understandings of what apostolic succession entails in a given communion. We in communion with OO Alexandria also talk about the “See of St. Mark”, obviously. I guarantee you we do not mean what you mean when you talk about the “Office of St. Peter”. Again, knowing in advance this discrepancy, I maintain that there is no “office” of any apostle and invite you to re-read any of the above should you become confused as to what that does or does not mean.
 
But canon 6, if correct is was not directly written as a reaction to papal jurisdiction. Even if it were,then it clearly shows that the East in several instances failed to adhere,because many went to Rome to have disputes settled. If canon 6 binds a bishop to his local jurisdiction,then it fails to explain why Bishops from hundreds of miles away failed to settle issues in-house?
I think we’ve often discussed this, Nicea. 🙂

My understanding is that it was to formalize jurisdiction of bishops.
As far as others going to the Bishop of Rome for counsel, I fail to see how that translates into universal jurisdiction.

on
 
Then explain the unbroken chain of bishops (West/East) in both anicent churches?
It isn’t unbroken. Depending on who you ask, Rome or the Byzantines or the non-Chalcedonians or the Nestorians left it after their respective schisms from one another. That’s the entire point of any of my posts on this matter: If you take Rome to be the de facto nucleus around which Christianity centers (and I suppose if anybody’s going to, it would make sense for the Romans and those in communion with them to do so), then the RCC apologia on this point makes perfect sense. If, however, you are on the other side of the Nile, the Bosphorus, or the Euphrates, then it is not clear why any of Rome’s claims are to be taken as self-evident, as RCC apologists in this thread and elsewhere have claimed.

Perspective is not given its proper credit on internet forums or in life, I’m afraid. Indeed there is truth that does not vary based on where you’re sitting, but all this stuff about a unique role for the Roman Pope isn’t one such inarguable truth, or else we would not have our own traditions that don’t include it (and you wouldn’t have yours that do).
 
Not all Christians; just Christians belonging to the Catholic Church founded by Jesus, as opposed to a Church founded by a mere man.

You said: “it’s simple to see that papal supremacy, as it’s understood by the RCC today, did not exist.”

Could you please support that statement?
Hi, Joe. How are you? 👋

Jon
 
Again from the ecumenical council of Ephesus:
Philip, presbyter and legate of the Apostolic See said: We offer our thanks to the holy and venerable Synod, that when the writings of our holy and blessed pope had been read to you, the holy members by our [or your] holy voices,(1) ye joined yourselves to the holy head also by your holy acclamations. For your blessedness is not ignorant that the head of the whole faith, the head of the Apostles, is blessed Peter the Apostle. And since now our mediocrity, after having been tempest-tossed and much vexed, has arrived, we ask that ye give order that there be laid before us what things were done in this holy Synod before our arrival; in order that according to the opinion of our blessed pope and of this present holy assembly, we likewise may ratify their determination.
Philip the presbyter and legate of the Apostolic See said: There is no doubt, and in fact it has been known in all ages, that the holy and most blessed Peter, prince ( exarkos ) and head of the Apostles, pillar of the faith, and foundation ( qemelios ) of the Catholic Church, received the keys of the kingdom from our Lord Jesus Christ, the Saviour and Redeemer of the human race, and that to him was given the power of loosing and binding sins: who down even to to-day and forever both lives and judges in his successors. The holy and most blessed pope Coelestine, according to due order, is his successor and holds his place, and us he sent to supply his place m this holy synod, which the most humane and Christian Emperors have commanded to assemble, bearing in mind and continually watching over the Catholic faith. For they both have kept and are now keeping intact the apostolic doctrine handed down to them from their most pious and humane grandfathers and fathers of holy memory down to the present time, etc.
 
Josie and others: Please read my reply to Pol18guy. I don’t feel like repeating the same points over and over again. Suffice it to say that we definitely accept the Council of Ephesus, and find no problem with the quoted portion, but do not interpret any of this as evidence for modern RC ecclesiology, or stances on the Roman Pope, or anything that you think you’re proving by continuing to underline and bold certain things. Please come up with an explicit argument build from whatever you think is relevant (not just underlining), and considered in context, if you want to continue to try to use Ephesus as evidence of anything at all. Otherwise I have nothing new to add to what I’ve already written, as you haven’t actually presented anything that tells me why you think Ephesus should be evidence of the modern RCC stance.
 
Josie and others: Please read my reply to Pol18guy. I don’t feel like repeating the same points over and over again. Suffice it to say that we definitely accept the Council of Ephesus, and find no problem with the quoted portion, but do not interpret any of this as evidence for modern RC ecclesiology, or stances on the Roman Pope, or anything that you think you’re proving by continuing to underline and bold certain things. Please come up with an explicit argument build from whatever you think is relevant (not just underlining), and considered in context, if you want to continue to try to use Ephesus as evidence of anything at all. Otherwise I have nothing new to add to what I’ve already written, as you haven’t actually presented anything that tells me why you think Ephesus should be evidence of the modern RCC stance.
My point is the see of Peter resides in Rome, i.e., Pope Celestine is his rightful successor and head of the Church as indicated and specified at Ephesus, thereby nullifying what you’ve said earlier about their not being a specific Petrine see/office. :dancing:
 
Hi, Joe. How are you? 👋

Jon
Hey Jon. I’m doing pretty good. So busy lately, which is why I have been away from the forum. :juggle: How are you doing brother? Hope you had a great Christmas and new year! 👍
 
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