P
pocohombre
Guest
You rightly say the NT is prefigured in the OT. The whole idea of a priest is to be a go between us and God, because of sin. The priest is holy, that is set apart for the function or intercession, to offer up sacrifice, prayer and thanksgiving on our behalf, he being our representative. It is “one who can draw near”. Just from this can’t you see why some feel that priesthood is fullfilled in Christ, and given to us, the old priesthood of the law being dissolved (but not some pre-law forms). The idea we need a representative for prayer and thanksgivings, to “draw near” should be foreign to us. Never the less, the OT had priests. At first the head of every household was the priest (think Job, Abraham Isaac etc). Then in Exodus 19:4 we read the real counterpart to St.Peter’s statement, the prefiguring in the OT, " To the children of Israel…If ye obey and keep covenant ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests,and a holy nation". But because of their sin in Sinai, this did not materialize and in fact the people pretty much asked Moses to be intercessor because of fear. So God in His mercy appointed the task not to all twelve tribes as originally intended but to one, Aaron and the Levites. So priests had a few phases in OT, and we haven’t even talked about Melchizadek and Christ being of the tribe of Judah (not Levi). So, where do we stand in all of this? It is my contention that the CC likens the priesthood to the Mosaic priesthood and only lip service to pre-mosaic priesthood. That is they re-established a special class in the priesthood as set apart, holy, who can “draw near”, while still believing we all are a “royal priesthood”. This is contradictory to OT. I don’t think you can cite an example where the two types of priests coexist in OT. That is, only for a very short time were they were a “nation of priests”. All too quickly that ceased and it was then priests were only a select few (Aaron/levites). Further evidence for this is given where St.Paul says we can boldly go into His presence, “he has not given us a spirit of fear”.( Remember the Israelites and their fear of God at the mountain, saying to Moses, “you go for us” ?) Hebrews 10:19, “having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter the holiest by the blood of Jesus”. He is speaking of entering the holy of holies of the old temple, something only the high priest could do, once a year. Furthermore, we are told that the veil separating the holiest place in the temple was torn in two when our Lord was put to death. It was torn in two, by the Blood, so we can “draw near”. For we are like the Exodus Israelite per St.Peter’s statement ,a royal priesthood, a holy nation… I understand you draw on the need for the sacrifice of the Mass needing a priest .St. Peter only mentions the royal priesthood offering spiritual sacrifices and sacrifices of praise.That is why I don’t think they had priests in early church. They did not view Mass as offering up sacrifice in OT sense but offering up praise and thanksgiving. So much so that the remembrance was called “thanksgiving” or eucharist.The NT is prefigured in the OT. So I ask you, did the OT Jews need a priest to enter the holy of holies? Sure they did. Why? Because that was God’s design. So was it God’s design that all people have authority? Did Jesus give authority to all his disciples or just a few? If they were all priests as you claim why didn’t everyone get the keys or the power to bind and loose? Why were there only twelve apostles? Why did the apostles say that it was not right for them “to wait on tables” and so they created deacons to tend to the material needs of the church. If everyone is a priest as you want to claim then why are there the divisions we see in scripture. Your model of christianity of everyone being a priest just does not fit the picture presented in scripture.