Paul VI on contraception for nuns in the Congo

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…Sin is primarily in the will, not the body. There is no intent to reorder the act, because one is not presuming to partake in the act.
Precisely. Though as I point out above, one does need to consider consequences when judging morality.
 
Precisely. Though as I point out above, one does need to consider consequences when judging morality.
Of course, it is a part of “circumstance.”

This is a great example of what goes awry when the demarcation of the moral object gets screwed up in people’s heads… The distinction between contraception and defense against pregnancy is lost.
 
…But yes your correct that it is a different matter than married persons using contraception (a grave sin).
I am not so sure that it is marriage that makes the difference here, though contraception is typically described in that context.

What is sufficient to definitively determine that no act of contraception occurred (regardless of the ingestion of any pills) is that at no time was there any intent or free choice to engage in sexual relations.

PS: it would be helpful to cease using the term “contraception” to refer to the pill. This only creates confusion between a drug, and the human act of contraception.
 
The problem with the nuns in the Congo scenario is that oral contraceptives are abortifacient.
This is misleading. Most oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. A secondary process is a thickening of the cervical mucus producing a physical barrier to the migration of sperm to the egg. It is theoretically possible that these contraceptives may also interfere with implantation, which would constitute an abortifacient property. So, it is not true that oral contraceptives *are *abortifacient. It is true that they may be in some rare number of cases. This is based on what is known today; it isn’t clear how much of this was known back in the '60s.

Ender
 
It can be argued that the abortifacient nature of some drugs raises moral questions about their use in the “nun scenario”. Even if this act is immoral, it would not be the immoral act of contraception, but rather the immorality (if any) may derive from the potential consequences of the act.

If the question were instead - may a woman, fearing rape, “wear” a barrier device which impedes semen - the answer would be, “yes, certainly”. Such an act (in the event of rape) is not the immoral act of contraception.
Use of contraception in cases of rape is indirect, and moral. Sexual acts naturally proceed toward conception, so the prevention of conception is morally an interruption of the rape (direct) and the lack of procreation is in the consequences (indirect).

But the use of abortifacient contraception is not indirect, since killing an innocent prenatal does not interrupt or stop a rape. So the morality of the act does not depend only on the consequences.

At the time (in the 1960’s), theologians and people in general did not realize that oral contraceptives are abortifacients. That is why some theologians approved of their use in cases of rape. But given what we now know, their use is NOT moral in cases of rape – unless it can be determined that, in a particular instance, the pill will only act as a contraceptive, not an abortifacient.
 
Use of contraception in cases of rape is indirect, and moral. Sexual acts naturally proceed toward conception, so the prevention of conception is morally an interruption of the rape (direct) and the lack of procreation is in the consequences (indirect).

But the use of abortifacient contraception is not indirect, since killing an innocent prenatal does not interrupt or stop a rape. So the morality of the act does not depend only on the consequences.
An act which has a possible death as a consequence is not a willful killing. Shooting down a jet bomber before it drops its bombs upon innocents, even if that action may kill an innocent hostage in the plane, is permissible subject to the balance of consequences.
 
An act which has a possible death as a consequence is not a willful killing. Shooting down a jet bomber before it drops its bombs upon innocents, even if that action may kill an innocent hostage in the plane, is permissible subject to the balance of consequences.
I don’t understand these analogies. Contraception isn’t fighting the rapist. Contraception is fighting against a possible baby.
 
I’d like His Holiness to clarify this.

Anyone with even one day of study in moral theology would recognize that the two situations aren’t even in the same ballpark, let alone comparable from a moral standpoint.

It might take a few days more but, yes, I agree and see no connection. The whole answer was quite odd, right from saying “abortion is not the lesser of two evils” when that’s not what the questioner was suggesting…to the Congo story…to the “evil of avoiding pregnancy” to concluding with a comment about “this situation” (which one? Zika or the Congo?)…

I don’t expect a clarification from the pope, though…

Dan
 
I don’t understand these analogies. Contraception isn’t fighting the rapist. Contraception is fighting against a possible baby.
When the rapist is gone, but his uninvited semen remains, sweeping away the semen prior to conception is also not the moral wrong of contraception, anymore than heaving his body of the victim’s body moment prior to ejaculation is an act of contraception.

The analogy I presented addressed another issue raised by Ron conte.
 
Ron, Thank you, thank you so much for posting this! I felt sick after hearing what the Pope said about Paul vi. I hope Rome puts forth another clarification.
Thank you again.
 
Use of contraception in cases of rape is indirect, and moral. Sexual acts naturally proceed toward conception, so the prevention of conception is morally an interruption of the rape (direct) and the lack of procreation is in the consequences (indirect).

But the use of abortifacient contraception is not indirect, since killing an innocent prenatal does not interrupt or stop a rape. So the morality of the act does not depend only on the consequences.

At the time (in the 1960’s), theologians and people in general did not realize that oral contraceptives are abortifacients. That is why some theologians approved of their use in cases of rape. But given what we now know, their use is NOT moral in cases of rape – unless it can be determined that, in a particular instance, the pill will only act as a contraceptive, not an abortifacient.
The CT bishops approved the use of levonorgestrel-only Plan B meds after a rape; levonorestrel prevents ovulation.
 
WRT the issue of the nuns in the Congo, at the time this is reported to have happened, 1961, the Pill was a fairly new thing and not a lot was known about it.

One of the reasons that the Church did not immediately rule it as contraception and therefore immoral as contraception is that its main inventor, Dr John Rock, a sincere Catholic, thought that its use would be allowed due to the permission of the Church to use knowledge of a woman’s fertility cycle to avoid conception. The Pill was seen as a sort of regulator of a woman’s cycle, so Dr Rock thought, as did many others, that it would be permissible.

It was not until later that… Humanae Vitae came out, that we learned about the abortifacient aspects of the Pill, that we learned of the dangers of using the Pill. Thus, during a time when the question of using the Pill was still up in the air, that that the nuns could use the Pill for potentially contraceptive purposes might have been a decision (if indeed the Pope did concur) that would not have been made later on, like after HV clarified the position of the Pill as definitely an artificial form of contraception and thus immoral.

I originally read about Dr Rock’s misunderstanding several years ago, and I have no idea where. This is a summary of a New Yorker article which mentions the misunderstanding. The summary states this: “if Rock wanted to demonstrate that the Pill was no more than a natural variant of the rhythm method,” and this is not exactly what I read in the article I read years ago, which more definitely said that Dr Rock thought the Pill would fall under the rhythm method.
 
I don’t understand these analogies. Contraception isn’t fighting the rapist. Contraception is fighting against a possible baby.
Thank you for understanding the whole scenario. Use of contraception doesn’t protect against any evil (rape) Mechanical contraception can prevent the Author of life from creating a soul made in His image and likeness while chemical contraception can expel a fertilized egg (immortal soul) causing death.

To argue about whether or not an infallibly defined doctrine can be bound or loosed by Peter is silly. “The Church has always affirmed that the licitness of contraception is an infallible doctrine. The Church has always taught the intrinsic evil of contraception……” See Catholic Answers tract on birth control catholic.com/tracts/birthcontrol

Lord have mercy on us!
 
?..To argue about whether or not an infallibly defined doctrine can be bound or loosed by Peter is silly. “The Church has always affirmed that the licitness of contraception is an infallible doctrine. The Church has always taught the intrinsic evil of contraception……” See Catholic Answers tract on birth control catholic.com/tracts/birthcontrol
No one is seeking to overturn any teaching. But teachings have to be properly understood, and this means understanding what constitutes a particular sinful act, what gives it its moral a character.

All acts that avoid a conception are not the morally wrong act we call “contraception”, just as all acts that see one human die are not the moral wrong we call murder.

If a woman has been raped, an act to sweep away the semen, which has no right to be within her body, is not an act of contraception. You will find the US Bishops have themselves affirmed this by virtue of the treatments approved in US Catholic hospitals for rape victims.

An act which intends to kill a conceived child is murder, and that is also not in dispute.
 
If contraception, a barrier or chemical taken to prevent conception is used, please explain how that is ever licit in the context of what is being discussed -Zika.

Pope and bishops are suggesting new doctrine of licit use of contraception to prevent “possible” birth defect due to Zika. Why can’t contraception be used for other eugenic reasons -to prevent cystic fibrosis, dwarfism, etc…?
 
If contraception, a barrier or chemical taken to prevent conception is used, please explain how that is ever licit in the context of what is being discussed -Zika.
to whom do you address the question? I for one know of no scenario where a married couple may do as you suggest. I’ve not said otherwise.
Pope and bishops are suggesting new doctrine of licit use of contraception to prevent “possible” birth defect due to Zika. Why can’t contraception be used for other eugenic reasons -to prevent cystic fibrosis, dwarfism, etc…?
I am unaware of these suggestions.
 
to whom do you address the question? I for one know of no scenario where a married couple may do as you suggest. I’ve not said otherwise.

I am unaware of these suggestions.
Pope Francis suggested that a married couple may use contraception to avoid Zika. He claims that Paul VI allowed nuns in Africa to use contraception to avoid pregnancy (at best, a dubious claim and probably an outright deception as has already been established in this thread) See his interview ncregister.com/daily-news/full-text-of-pope-francis-in-flight-interview-from-mexico-to-rome/ He says contraception can be the “lesser of two evils” when compared with abortion (as if those are the only 2 options a woman can choose between to avoid Zika) because he goes on to say there is a “conflict between the fifth and sixth commandments”. He further states that contraception is not an “absolute evil”. Fr. Lombardi later clarified the Pope’s remarks about “avoiding pregnancy” to in fact mean contraception and condoms. lifesitenews.com/news/breaking-vatican-affirms-pope-was-speaking-about-contraceptives-for-zika And now the Philippine Bishops are saying contraception may be used to prevent spread of Zika ksl.com/?nid=1016&sid=38578516&title=philippine-bishops-back-popes-remarks-on-zika-contraception

Contrast this new doctrine making headlines and influencing the practices of people throughout the world with what CA says is an already-defined infallible doctrine.catholic.com/tracts/birth-control "The Church also has affirmed that the illicitness of contraception is an infallible doctrine: The Church has always taught the intrinsic evil of contraception…"

My question is posed to anyone who can make sense of it all. Are we to follow infallibly defined doctrine of the Church since Her inception or what the Pope, Fr Lombardi, and the Philippine bishops are now espousing?

The salvation of millions of souls who may be influenced to contracept is at stake!
 
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