How do you explain the fact that disease and death existed for 3.5 billion years before humans evolved?
==> We do not know that for certain. We can only “guess” based on what we think is the an accurate fossil record and accurate dating methods, both could be correct or wrong. Further, God might very well have used evolutionary processes to prepare the world for us.
Where was it? And how do you explain the fact that there is no evidence in the human genome that the population of hominids evolving into
Homo sapiens never fell significantly below 3,000 breeding pairs? That is, there is no evidence of a “founder effect,” in which the population of *Homo sapiens *fell to a single pair.
==> I have read much disagreeing with that statement. However, we are “devolving” into a topic that is far off the OP at this point. There are plenty of evolution threads.
This is an intiguingly odd mixture of biblical literalism and rejection of biblical literalism. On the one hand you insist on taking the Adam and Eve story literally, yet on the other hand you dismiss the genealogies of the Old Testament as non-literal. Which is legitimate? Or do you insist on a literal interpretation sometimes, and at other times when it is convenient you permit yourself to stray from that literalism?
==> I do not dismiss genealogies–too many people (mainly fundamentalists) think they are the full record. I do not think they are and the Church has made no statement like that either. However, the Church does say the Garden, the Fall, and Adam and Eve were real events and real people and our real parents and the Bible supports that 100%.