What if a man only orgasms upon receiving felatio? (I can hear men and women chiming in, "I can hardly imagine that being the case!). Obviously if his greatness, Christopher West, said a female can achieve orgasm through alternative methods, then there can’t be anything intrinsically wrong with sex that obviously isn’t geared towards procreation. Dissatisfaction with the status quo doesn’t make alternatives acceptible (not that I subscribe to any of the above). If a man stops before ejaculating while receiving felatio (but has no intention of intercourse), it’s all represented on the same continuum. A make out session is just the lower part of the continuum that leads to the higher part (felatio) that leads to the unacceptable part - for the man (ejaculating) - and acceptable for the woman under arbitrary circumstances (if intercourse doesn’t bring the woman to orgasm the way oral sex might). You see my difficulty though.
You are correct that female orgasm is not required for an act of sexual intercourse to be open for life (although there are studies that suggest that the contractions of the uterus
may aid in conception), but there are
two aspects to sex- the procreative AND the unitive. No, the husband does not have to bring his wife to orgasm, but sex is supposed to be a way for a husband and wife to show their love for one another, and the loving thing for a husband to do is to bring his wife to orgasm if she is unable to during sex.
This is different because the male and female orgasm are different. One is necessary for creating new life, the other isn’t. But in both cases, it is only licit during an act of completed intercourse, foreplay included. The female orgasm occurring before or after intercourse does not affect her ability to conceive. The male orgasm occurring anywhere except his wife’s vagina renders the vaginal intercourse sterile- making it a sin.
Open to life: act must not be intentionally sterilized in any way- either birth control or ejaculation out side of vaginal intercourse (some of the basis for this is the story of Onan, who “spilled his seed” on the floor before in order to avoid giving his brother children by his widow)
Unitive: sex is an expression of love between a husband and wife. Now, I’m chaste so I can’t say from experience, but I get the feeling I wouldn’t feel very loved if my future husband was the only one who got to fully enjoy sex. Sex is meant to bring a couple closer together, a physical expression of their love. As I said, a husband does not have to bring his wife to orgasm, but what loving husband would deny his wife the full enjoyment of sex?
(unfortunately I have an early class tomorrow and must go to bed. I look forward to continuing this discussion later)