P
PopeStSixtus
Guest
Hello everyone, sensitive topic regarding licit marital “activities” during periods of abstinence during fertile periods.
Please note that this question is in the context of a valid marriage, and the assumption is that the husband and wife have no intention of reaching “completion” outside of natural intercourse.
This is a “how far is too far” from an objective moral standpoint.
Obviously hugging, playing board games, going for walks, or other activities that aren’t sensual in nature are permitted. My question pertains to unitive acts that are sensual in nature, but aren’t intended to immediately result in a “completed” marital act.
Obviously there is a second question of leading one another to a near occasion of sin, but please assume, for the sake of this conversation, that the spouses have adequate control to where such activities would not lend themselves to other, unrelated sexual sins.
I would also ask that replies be rooted in Church teaching, moral theology, etc., and not from personal opinion.
Another way to ask the question is: is there a line at which point foreplay ceases to be foreplay? For example, can a man and woman enjoy the heightened passion that can occur during fertile periods and use it as a means of enhancing foreplay over the course of one or more days in anticipation of the time when they are able to consummate the act ? If not days, what about hours (for example, starting in the morning before work, and then consummating that night)?
What’s the line? And why?
Your (name removed by moderator)ut is appreciated!
Please note that this question is in the context of a valid marriage, and the assumption is that the husband and wife have no intention of reaching “completion” outside of natural intercourse.
This is a “how far is too far” from an objective moral standpoint.
Obviously hugging, playing board games, going for walks, or other activities that aren’t sensual in nature are permitted. My question pertains to unitive acts that are sensual in nature, but aren’t intended to immediately result in a “completed” marital act.
Obviously there is a second question of leading one another to a near occasion of sin, but please assume, for the sake of this conversation, that the spouses have adequate control to where such activities would not lend themselves to other, unrelated sexual sins.
I would also ask that replies be rooted in Church teaching, moral theology, etc., and not from personal opinion.
Another way to ask the question is: is there a line at which point foreplay ceases to be foreplay? For example, can a man and woman enjoy the heightened passion that can occur during fertile periods and use it as a means of enhancing foreplay over the course of one or more days in anticipation of the time when they are able to consummate the act ? If not days, what about hours (for example, starting in the morning before work, and then consummating that night)?
What’s the line? And why?
Your (name removed by moderator)ut is appreciated!
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