Petra and Petros...?

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Hey Jon…🙂
JonNC;8543971]Joe, if I may.
Rock also doesn’t mean, or translate to universal jurisdiction and infallibility (ex cathedra) either. Does it? If so, how so?
Agreed Jon. 👍 But of course the teachings of universal jurisdiction and infallibility (all truth) - is not defined, solely, by Jesus re-naming Simon - Petros, the masculine for petra, aka Cephas. Jesus seems to be simply telling Simon (name meaning to hear/obey) - that He will build His one church (I will build my church, as opposed to autonomous churches) - on a sold foundation, which suggests that Jesus’ church will remain intact until His return, at least to me anyway.
My understanding of this from Matt 7 is regarding Christ, not St. Peter.
Absolutely agree. I wasn’t implying in any way that Matthew 7 was directly referring to the man Simon. I was merely pointing out the similar way in which the word “petra” was being used in Matthew 7.👍

Mt 7:24 - original Greek being petra:

"Therefore everyone who hears these words of Mine and acts on them, may be compared to a wise man who built his house on the rock (petra).
 
=joe370;8544132]Hey Jon…🙂
Agreed Jon. 👍 But of course the teachings of universal jurisdiction and infallibility (all truth) - is not defined, solely, by Jesus re-naming Simon - Petros, the masculine for petra, aka Cephas. Jesus seems to be simply telling Simon (name meaning to hear/obey) - that He will build His one church (I will build my church, as opposed to autonomous churches) - on a sold foundation, which suggests that Jesus’ church will remain intact until His return, at least to me anyway.
Yet, autonomous does not mean churches. They are part of the one true Church.
Even the Lutheran confessions speak of one Church - (Also they teach that one holy Church is to continue forever. The Church is the congregation of saints, in which the Gospel is rightly taught and the Sacraments are rightly administered. ), as well as in the creed.
Absolutely agree. I wasn’t implying in any way that Matthew 7 was directly referring to the man Simon. I was merely pointing out the similar way in which the word “petra” was being used in Matthew 7.👍
Mt 7:24 - original Greek being petra:
"Therefore everyone who hears these words of Mine and acts on them, may be compared to a wise man who built his house on the rock (petra).
Are you then saying that petra refers to Christ - the faith - “you are the Christ, the Son of the living God.”

So, in both settings, Matt 6 and 7, Christ uses petra to refer to faith in Him?

Jon
 
JonNC;8544188]Yet, autonomous does not mean churches. They are part of the one true Church.
I suppose the one invisible church for the simple fact that each church is a visibly self governing assembly, isolated from other self governing churches. There is no one self governing visible church, that I can see.
Are you then saying that petra refers to Christ - the faith - “you are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” So, in both settings, Matt 6 and 7, Christ uses petra to refer to faith in Him?
Of course Jesus is the divine Petra, but no, that was not what I was suggesting. Jesus, even though you and I agree that He is the divine Petra, still said to Simon, you are rock (petros) - and on this rock (petra) - I will build my church…and I was merely pointing out the similar way in which the word “petra” was being used in Matthew 7. Since Jesus’ (who is the divine rock) - church is built on the visible rock, aka Peter, then, like in Mark 7, (where the rain came down, the streams rose, and the winds blew and beat against that house, yet it did not fall, because it had its foundation on the rock) - so is the case with Jesus’ church! 👍
 
The council was not over. Only James had the right to conclude the council. When James rendered his judgment, his judgement was the judgement of the council. “After they had stopped speaking, James answered…” (NASV) Your word “concluded” from whatever version you are quoting from is “sigEsai” in Greek, and it means to-hush, that is to stop speaking.
JL: James probably presided over the council but I don’t see any scripture saying ONLY James had the right to conclude the council?

Acts15:22 THEN PLEASED THE APOSTLES AND ELDERS WITH THE WHOLE CHURCH, to send chosen men of their own company to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas; namely, Judas surnamed Barsabas and Silas, chief men among the brethren: Acts15:25 It seemed good unto us, being assembled with one accord, to send chosen men unto you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul,

The question for the council was; should Gentiles be circumcised and commanded to observe the Law of Moses; Acts15:5 But there rose up certain of the sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the law of Moses

Peter gave the definitive DOCTRINAL definition that Gentiles did not have to be circumcised nor observe the law of Moses. [Acts15:10 Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear? 11 But we believe that through the grace of the LORD Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they. 12 **THEN ALL THE MULTITUDE KEPT SILENCE, and gave audience to Barnabas and Paul, declaring what miracles and wonders God had wrought among the Gentiles by them. 13 And after they had held their peace, James answered, saying, Men and brethren, hearken unto me: 14 SIMEON HATH DECLARED how God at the first did visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for his name. 15 And to this agree the words of the prophets; as it is written,]

There was no more DEBATE, after Peter spoke, ALL kept silence. Then they heard Barnabus and Paul tell of the wonders God had done among the Gentiles by them. After Barnabus and Paul held their peace (stopped talking). James answered he did not make the decision but gave evidence from scripture, for Peter’s teaching. James agreed with Peter’s declaration and recommended DISCIPLINES or rules of conduct from the law of Moses. As a pastoral compromise and concession to Jewish Christians, who were still the marjoirty. Acts15:20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
I have another scripture verse for you to consider: “But when Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned. For prior to the coming of certain men from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles; but when they came, he began to withdraw and hold himself aloof, fearing the party of the circumcision.” (Galations 2:11-12). My question to you now is, why did Peter fear men from James?! I will tell you the, plain as day, answer: it is because James outranked Peter, James was Peter’s boss!
JL: If James was the leader then why do Orthodox give Peter the primacy of honor and not James? Even many Protestant scholars today agree Peter is the ROCK.

[Gal2:12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, **FEARING them which were of THE CIRCUMCISION.] Actually John the plain truth is scripture doesn’t say Peter FEARED James. Scripture says he FEARED the party of the circumcision. It seems to me Peter wanted to avoid a controversy. As the Leader his bad example gave the wrong message. Paul seeing this rebuked him publically. Paul also did something similar but no one takes notice of it.

[Acts 16:3 Paul wanted Timothy to accompany him and **he circumcised him BECAUSE of the Jews.] Paul had Timothy circumcised. Paul preached against circumcision.
 
Are you then saying that petra refers to Christ - the faith - “you are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” So, in both settings, Matt 6 and 7, Christ uses petra to refer to faith in Him? Jon
JL: In Matthew I would say Christ is elluding to Solomon a wise man, who builds God’s house (Temple) on rock. I would say it mirrors Christ, the ultimate wise man, who is building God’s house (Temple) on rock=Peter. And the gates of hell shall never prevail against it.
 
“One of the most surprising facts about these [Jewish] funerary inscriptions is that most of them are IN GREEK – approximately 70 percent; about 12 percent are in Latin; and only 18 percent are in Hebrew or Aramaic.” (from: ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm#Jewish_Inscriptions_in_GREEK)

Except for the Gospel of Matthew, there is no evidence that the New Testament was written in Aramaic. The probability sides with most people speaking Greek, including Jews!
The Palestinian area that Jesus grew up in spoke Aramaic.
It has nothing to do with inscription, it has to do with the fact Jesus grew up speaking Aramaic. We can gain a lot of information about the language Jesus spoke by just looking at his Mother and Father.
Both of them grew up in poor families in a Palestinian area. Odds are they spoke their Native language of Aramaic. While it is true Greek would of been important to learn if going in to politics or if you were rich.
However, they were not rich therefore they were taught their native language. So sense Jesus, just like most Palestinian kids, was home schooled. Taught what his parents knew, and his parents knew Aramaic. Jesus knew Aramaic because Mary and Joseph spoke and taught their son Aramaic.
 
Joe, if I may.
Rock also doesn’t mean, or translate to universal jurisdiction and infallibility (ex cathedra) either. Does it? If so, how so?
Hey Jon,

My understanding of the universal jurisdiction of St. Peter comes from what follows the “upon this rock…I will build.”
  • Christ says I will you keys to the Kingdom. And whatever you bind/loose is bound/loosed in heaven.
  • In St. John’s gospel, Our Lord entrusts all his flock to St. Peter asks “Simon bar Jonah, do you love me more than these?” Then, twice he asks “SbJ, Do you love me?” Peter says he does, Christ answers: Feed my sheep, tend/take care of my sheep, feed my lambs".
It’s clear to me that St. Peter’s office in the church is very much universal.
My understanding of this from Matt 7 is regarding Christ, not St. Peter.
That’s also my understanding. But does it make sense to imagine that Christ built his house upon a weak foundation?

Peace!
 
JohnVIII;8533929]I can’t go through this response to my posting and comment because you have got several things in it mixed up. May I try to just straiten out the matter of the various people names “James” in the New Testament
.

I have no problem with James/ Jacob theories and the like. So you can respond to my posts of Jesus building His Church upon Peter, commisioning Peter to Shepherd His flock on earth before He ascends into heaven and places an eternal life of no taste of death upon Peter until the Kingdom of God is revealed.

I was always under the impression that James bishop of Jerusalem was the brother of Jesus. Recent historians disagree and remains in debate today.

When Paul lists James before Cephas and John in Galatians, it is because Paul is visiting the first Church who the bishop happens to be James. Peter had already baptized thousands there, James became bishop to over see the Church Peter had built in Jerusalem. Just as Peter did in Antioch, later sends Mark to Egypt then back to Rome.

**Your James again becomes debatable. When Peter’s position is clearly recorded and stated by Jesus himself. Here is the test. Who would carry more weight? the Gospel writers recording Jesus building His church upon Peter and giving Peter authority in the keys of heaven on earth and shepherding His flock? and who witnessed Jesus doing and recorded Jesus sayings.

Or an epistle later written to the Gentile Galatian church of an apostle who later was called after the resurrection and ascension of Jesus sent out to the Gentiles by a converted Pharisee Jew who persecuted the Church by the name Saul now named Paul?**

Paul here is teaching and confirming with the Galatians that the Jewish convert Bishop of Jerusalem James, which at first glance carries with it lot of weight on the surface to conclude, that Paul is right in not having his Gentile converts be circumcised, because James the bishop of Jerusalem Peter and John “who were reputed to be pillars” agreed with Pauls teachings and gave him their blessings. This reveals Pauls early distance from the Apostles in the beginning as recognizing only the bishop of Jerusalem who agrees with his preaching, comes from an established apostolic ordained bishop of the first Church in Jerusalem, which probably was well known and respected to the new Church’s being built througout Palastine.

**In summary I am not discounting James the bishop of Jerusalems authority over Jewish converts and Gentile converts being burdened by Jewish converts including Pauls evangelized communities such as Galatians. Jesus never builds nor places James in any authoritative position over the whole flock as Jesus relates His office to Peter alone by the 4 Gospel writers.

In fact if you are wanting to use a later epistle after the fact Galatians records Paul after recieving his vocation from Jesus, informs the Galatians what he did first to confirm this teaching to be true;

It is from your own Galatians source that records Peter being mentioned before James here in verse 18 which contradicts your theory that James is always mentioned first before Peter.**

Galatians 1:15 But when [God], who from my mother’s womb had set me apart and called me through his grace, was pleasedk 16to reveal his Son to me,l so that I might proclaim him to the Gentiles, I did not immediately consult flesh and blood,* 17nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me; rather, I went into Arabia* and then returned to Damascus.

18* Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to confer with Cephas and remained with him for fifteen days.m 19 But I did not see any other of the apostles,n only James the brother of the Lord.** 20(As to what I am writing to you, behold, before God, I am not lying.)

What I find interesting is that since Peter walked the earth. society has always stereotyped Peter as a simple humble largy of a man who can easily be influenced. Jesus knew this, that promised Peter to be with him always. The interesting part is that Orthodoxy and protestantism is still applying the same stereotypes to Peter as one not being set apart as Paul was set apart, yet both ended in Rome where Peter remains today.
The authority of St Peter is a teaching authority, he was not a ruler over the Church. Once again, the foundation of the Church is not the beginning and the end, the first and the last, the alpha and the omega! Peter was made the foundation of the Church (according to the Greek Matthew), but every calling in the Church is needed, Peter’s calling is important, but it is not the only calling, nor was it even the highest calling (in terms of episcopal authority)
Until you can prove Jesus lied from his own words of building His Church upon Peter, giving Peter the keys to the kingdom of Heaven to bind and loose on earth Jesus will bind and loose in heaven, and prove Jesus lied when He commanded Peter to feed, teach, and tend His flock until He returns.

You are hard pressed in relating other sciptures to override what Jesus revealed, commanded and commissioned upon Peter and then in a secondary authority to the other apostles, that is why Peter went to Jerusalem to reveal what God has spoken to Peter to be universal teaching in all the Church not just Jerusalem.

Peace be with you
 
My belief as a High Petrine advocate is a bit more nuanced than what I have been reading from my wonderful Catholic and non-Catholic brethren. I find myself agreeing/disagreeing with both parties rather comfortably. For instance:
John VIII:
The authority of St Peter is a teaching authority, he was not a ruler over the Church.
As a Catholic, I do believe that St. Peter was ruler over the Church, and Christ established him as such. HOWEVER, I believe just as firmly that this rulership was intended by Christ himself TO BE SHARED with the Apostles.

Much is made of the biblical fact that it was to St. Peter alone to whom the keys were given. But it should never be neglected, my Catholic brethren, that the POWER of the keys was SHARED by ALL the Apostles.

The Church is not a monarchy — much, much less an absolute monarchy. GOVERNANCE OF THE CHURCH IS SHARED BY ALL THE BISHOPS OF THE CHURCH. This is the infallible teaching of the ordinary and universal Magisterium as reflected in the Decrees of Vatican 2. Few people know this, but this teaching was also present at Vatican 1. It was explicitly contained in its Divine Consitution on the Church (De ecclesia), one of the Decrees prepared by the Vatican 1 bishop-theologians that unfortunately did not have the opportunity to be voted on due to time constraints at Vatican 1. The papal dogmas were never intended by the Vatican 1 Fathers to be (mis)interpreted to mean that the Pope has absolute power.

The principle of collegiality AND headship in the Church is of divine institution, according to the Faith of the Catholic Church, and (at least) all the Churches of the Syriac Tradition.
Once again, the foundation of the Church is not the beginning and the end, the first and the last, the alpha and the omega! Peter was made the foundation of the Church (according to the Greek Matthew), but every calling in the Church is needed, Peter’s calling is important, but it is not the only calling,
VERY well said. my friend and brother.
nor was it even the highest calling (in terms of episcopal authority)
There is actually truth to this according to Catholic teaching. According to Catholicism, the Church possesses two powers - the power of orders, and the power of jurisdiction. Absolutist Petrine advocates make much of the power of jurisdiction, which the Pope does indeed possess in its fullness. But they often neglect that the Catholic Church teaches that the power of orders is GREATER than the power of jurisdiction, and that the HIGHEST expression of the power of orders is the office of the bishop. In terms of this power of orders that is greater than the power of jurisdiction, no bishop is above another - and that includes the Pope (naturally).

There is much about the Catholic Church you may not know, brother Adrian. Do not let the excesses of Absolutist Petrine advocates twist your conception of the Catholic Church – not that I’m saying any of the Catholics with whom you have been debating are Absolutist Petrine advocates. For example, you may have missed this, but when you were debating with sister Marybeloved at one point, you stated to her that it was the Apostles who sent out Peter and John on mission, and concluded that since the one who sends is greater than the one who is sent, then Peter was subordinate to the body of Apostles. Her response to you was a classic High Petrine position - (in gist) that “the Apostles” included Peter, and you should not separate Peter from them. This is the principle of collegiality, which both the Absolutist Petrine (separating the head from the body) and Low Petrine (separating the body from the head) advocates very often (if not always) neglect. Of course, there was a point in your debate with her when you stated (correctly) that the Pope does not have absolute authority, and she (strangely, IMO) stated she disagreed with you.🤷

Blessings,
Marduk

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Of course, there was a point in your debate with her when you stated (correctly) that the Pope does not have absolute authority, and she (strangely, IMO) stated she disagreed with you.🤷
Hello, Mardukm

I’m pretty sure you’ve misunderstood whatever it is you’re citing from me or you mean to cite someone else. I’ve never held to the belief that the Pope’s authority is absolute. :nope: And I don’t remember debating JohnVIII on that issue at all. We’ve been debating whether Peter or James was head (as ruler) of the universal Church. Do you mind pointing to the particular quote so I can “clear my name” please?

PS- I am not a Petrine Absolutist. I believe in the papacy as I’ve seen it explained by a poster on another site (which is close to how I’ve seen you explain it in your many posts on the same subject) thus:
The Church and not the individual Bishops is protected from error (infallibility) by the Holy Ghost who is invisible but speaks through visible organs in three ways-
  • The ordinary magisterium by (informal) consensus among Bishops universally on a particular teaching on a matter of faith;
  • The “formal” episcopate (I’m not sure this is the proper term) or Bishops in an ecumenical council which must be ratified by the President of the episcopate (Pope);
  • Or rarely, the episcopate can speak directly through its President after a type of consensus/agreement has been achieved among the Bishops by consultation on a particular question of faith and morals.
If you read the earlier pages, 5 or 6, I think you’ll find that JohnVIII made a remark that I fully agreed with when he said that Peter’s office could not be permitted to do away with other gifts, and that Peter needed only be a teacher at the Jerusalem council and nothing more- And I fully agreed! The only Problem was him implying that the universal head/ruler was James not Peter- I simply cannot agree with that at all.🤷

Peace!
 
The Church and not the individual Bishops is protected from error (infallibility) by the Holy Ghost who is invisible but speaks through visible organs in three ways-

The ordinary magisterium by (informal) consensus among Bishops universally on a particular teaching on a matter of faith;
The “formal” episcopate (I’m not sure this is the proper term) or Bishops in an ecumenical council which must be ratified by the President of the episcopate (Pope);
]Or rarely, the episcopate can speak directly through its President after a type of consensus/agreement has been achieved among the Bishops by consultation on a particular question of faith and morals.

If you read the earlier pages, 5 or 6, I think you’ll find that JohnVIII made a remark that I fully agreed with when he said that Peter’s office could not be permitted to do away with other gifts, and that Peter needed only be a teacher at the Jerusalem council and nothing more- And I fully agreed! The only Problem was him implying that the universal head/ruler was James not Peter- I simply cannot agree with that at all.🤷

As far as th council I understand the discourse, but it does not imply here that James assumed authority to settle the case, but merely that he gave his opinion, or counsel. And in context the conversation moves forword with James not backward to Blood and Animal Sacrifice.

However as explained I don’t disagree with whom James is, and why he is in Jerusalem at this Council. He was most definate the Apostle charged with this community.

Peace!
Right, I see the Council the same. The church the same, and the Keys of the Kingdom the same. As far as the council I understand the discourse, but it does not imply here that James assumed authority to settle the case, but merely that he gave his opinion, or counsel. And in context the conversation moves forword with James not backward and to Blood and Animal Sacrifice.

However as explained I don’t disagree with whom James is, and why he is in Jerusalem at this Council. He was most definate the Apostle charged with this community.

However…

The Keys appear six times in Scripture. The connection from Davids Keys in Isaiah 22:22, to the genealogy of Christ in Matthew, which leads to the Keys being passed from Christ to St Peter in Matthew cannot be resolved in any other way.

If there’s another way to explain this in context with scripture cross reference I’d like to hear this.

As far as Revelations…

Aramaic Bible 2010
1:18- I am he who lived and died, and behold, I am alive to the eternity of eternities, amen, and I have the key of Death and of Sheol [Hades].

This verse by God has a completely different context to Davids Keys. For no-one on earth has the ability to judge the soul. As also Christ tells us fear nothing of this world. fear the one who has the final say on your soul. Davids Keys are also not mentioned.

3:7-“And to The Messenger of the assembly in Philadelphia write: 'Thus says The Holy One, The True One, he who has the key of David, The One who opens and there is none who shuts, and he shuts and there is none who opens:”

Here we are talking Revelation and prophecy yet to come. Far by me to state Rome is the church spoken about in Philadelphia. Not my point here or thinking. However we see here that the church is holding Davids Key of the Kindom and to bind and loose.

Isaiah 22:22 I will place on his shoulder the key to the house of David; what he opens no one can shut, and what he shuts no one can open.

The Key of the House of David was not a shared authority. David alone in the administrator for God on Earth. More important this is Gods authority on earth and the Key is the representation of this authority passed and to whom He wills.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English (2010)

Jesus speaks…
“To ‘you’ {Peter] I shall give the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven; everything that you will bind in the earth will have been bound in Heaven, and anything that you will release in the earth will have been released in Heaven.”

Jesus states; “To you Peter”

Some say this and some say that. I see no logical conclusion to this in Scripture Context any other way. I would be more than willing to listen.

Peace.
 
Let me revisit 15:19 not to start another conversation on it, but merely to show what I was speaking about earlier.

New International Version (©1984)
"It is my judgment, therefore, that we should not make it difficult for the Gentiles who are turning to God.
New Living Translation (©2007)
"And so my judgment is that we should not make it difficult for the Gentiles who are turning to God.

English Standard Version (©2001)
Therefore my judgment is that we should not trouble those of the Gentiles who turn to God,

New American Standard Bible (©1995)
"Therefore it is my judgment that we do not trouble those who are turning to God from among the Gentiles,

King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)
Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

International Standard Version (©2008)
Therefore, I have decided that we should not trouble these gentiles who are turning to God.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English (©2010)
“Therefore I say, let us not trouble those who are being turned to God from the Gentiles.”

GOD’S WORD® Translation (©1995)
"So I’ve decided that we shouldn’t trouble non-Jewish people who are turning to God.

King James 2000 Bible (©2003)
Therefore my judgment is, that we trouble not them, who from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

American King James Version
Why my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

American Standard Version
Wherefore my judgment is, that we trouble not them that from among the Gentiles turn to God;

Bible in Basic English
For this reason my decision is, that we do not put trouble in the way of those who from among the Gentiles are turned to God;

Douay-Rheims Bible
For which cause I judge that they, who from among the Gentiles are converted to God, are not to be disquieted.

Darby Bible Translation
Wherefore I judge, not to trouble those who from the nations turn to God;

English Revised Version
Wherefore my judgment is, that we trouble not them which from among the Gentiles turn to God;

Webster’s Bible Translation
Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, who from among the Gentiles are turned to God:

Weymouth New Testament
"My judgement, therefore, is against inflicting unexpected annoyance on those of the Gentiles who are turning to God.

World English Bible
"Therefore my judgment is that we don’t trouble those from among the Gentiles who turn to God,

Young’s Literal Translation
wherefore I judge: not to trouble those who from the nations do turn back to God,

What one may view as the “correct” Greek translation which resolves in english to “judge”. Doesn’t reduce or change the fact that different interpretations are used Biblically.

Thats all I’m saying on Judge. No more no less.

Peace
 
Hello Mardukm, I believe I found what you were referring to.

JohnVIII said
The Orthodox believe just as the Roman Catholics that Peter went to Rome and was martyred there. But I do not. I do not believe that the Jewish Keys of the Kingdom were passed on to the Roman Church. However, I do believe that the Roman Church had was founded with the intention of making it the first church with the bishop of Rome being the first bishop of the Church. And as such this gives the bishop of Rome much greater authority than other bishops, more that just “the first among equals”, but not absolute authority.
To which I answered
Ok. I perceive that we’ll just end up agreeing to disagree here-😉
I believe the confusion in my meaning stems from the fact that I quoted John’s entire paragraph rather than just the three sentences that I was referring to- That St. Peter was not martyred in Rome, his keys did not pass to the Roman Bishops and the Roman church was founded to be the first church apart from its connection to St. Peter. I totally agree with the last sentence- but my mind was elsewhere.

I should also add that you maybe assuming too much from this thread. It’s not about the exact nature of the papacy at all. Certain claims/questions have been put forward in a way that has framed the debate thus:
-Who was the Appointed leader of the whole church among the Apostles and elders? Peter or James
-What Role did Sts. Peter and James play in the Jerusalem council?
-Did st. Peter have a universal office/role in the Church as given him by Christ? (not the extent of his powers/authority)

No one has discussed the details of the different offices set up by Christ and how they are meant to operate together. The keys are referred to in the context of a claim that Peter’s authority is not universal or is limited to teaching. The debate takes on the shape of the claims and questions and “proofs” put forward, and they receive direct answers in that regard. So it does not mean that everyone who has not specifically spoken about the collegial nature of the church leadership doesn’t believe it or is an Absolutist- It’s just not the way the debate has flown, is all. 🤷

Peace!
 
Hello, Gary,
If there’s another way to explain this in context with scripture cross reference I’d like to hear this.

The Key of the House of David was not a shared authority. David alone in the administrator for God on Earth. More important this is Gods authority on earth and the Key is the representation of this authority passed and to whom He wills.

Some say this and some say that. I see no logical conclusion to this in Scripture Context any other way. I would be more than willing to listen.
Perhaps the context and real meaning is best explained by the Church herself; This is what the Catechism says:
*“The keys of the kingdom” **
551 From the beginning of his public life Jesus chose certain men, twelve in number, to be with him and to participate in his mission.280 He gives the Twelve a share in his authority and 'sent them out to preach the kingdom of God and to heal."281 They remain associated for ever with Christ’s kingdom, for through them he directs the Church:
*
As my Father appointed a kingdom for me, so do I appoint for you that you may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom, and sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel.282
552 Simon Peter holds the first place in the college of the Twelve;283 Jesus entrusted a unique mission to him. Through a revelation from the Father, Peter had confessed: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” Our Lord then declared to him: "You are Peter, and on this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of Hades will not prevail against it."284 Christ, the “living Stone”,285 thus assures his Church, built on Peter, of victory over the powers of death. Because of the faith he confessed Peter will remain the unshakable rock of the Church. His mission will be to keep this faith from every lapse and to strengthen his brothers in it.286
553 Jesus entrusted a specific authority to Peter: "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."287 The “power of the keys” designates authority to govern the house of God, which is the Church. Jesus, the Good Shepherd, confirmed this mandate after his Resurrection: "Feed my sheep."288 The power to “bind and loose” connotes the authority to absolve sins, to pronounce doctrinal judgements, and to make disciplinary decisions in the Church. Jesus entrusted this authority to the Church through the ministry of the apostles289 and in particular through the ministry of Peter, the only one to whom he specifically entrusted the keys of the kingdom.
The Church agrees with you that the keys are entrusted “specifically” only to St. Peter, but the Church understands that the authority signified by the keys (to Govern God’s house/church) is shared by all the Apostles as in the scripture quoted by the Catechism above. So in a way, the keys are with Peter, but the authority represented, though centered in him is shared with all the others. So we can assume the same about the Pope and Bishops who are all successors of the Apostles.

Peace.
 
Hello, Gary,Perhaps the context and real meaning is best explained by the Church herself; This is what the Catechism says:
The Church agrees with you that the keys are entrusted “specifically” only to St. Peter, but the Church understands that the authority signified by the keys (to Govern God’s house/church) is shared by all the Apostles as in the scripture quoted by the Catechism above. So in a way, the keys are with Peter, but the authority represented, though centered in him is shared with all the others. So we can assume the same about the Pope and Bishops who are all successors of the Apostles.

Peace.
Without a doubt I agree. Which is why its my firm belief these Apostolic Churchs should be sitting down and speaking. Regardless of how long that may be. No different than the Council of Jerusalem.

There’s a more complete Mystical Body of Christ yet to come on earth.

Peace
 
Without a doubt I agree. Which is why its my firm belief these Apostolic Churchs should be sitting down and speaking. Regardless of how long that may be. No different than the Council of Jerusalem.

There’s a more complete Mystical Body of Christ yet to come on earth.

Peace
👍 May that day come as soon as possible!

Peace
 
Never can be problem! Is outrage! Vodka is best solution.

On a slightly unrelated note, I once was told by a highly reputable Antiochian priest from Lebanon that ouzo is for weaklings (Greek weaklings), while real men drink arak. This is why Orthodoxy is true. Forget the papacy and the filioque, our internal competitiveness drives us to create ever stronger liquor, making our liquor far stronger than yours, hence we are the true Church. Like all alcohol-related logic, I promise that my proof of Orthodoxy is absolutely sound. 😃
:bowdown::bowdown::bowdown:
 
The “fledgling outsider” was not a reference top you. :confused::confused::confused: … This post of yours has left me quite bewildered friend. :bigyikes:
Clearly, I must have been the one who got confused. :o
But I will try again:

In your opinion, is there another possible way for you and I to resolve what appears to be the unresolvable, for ANY hypothetical outsider who happens to be following this thread, also seeking firm resolution regarding Acts 15, or the whole petra/petros matter? 🙂
No, I don’t think so. Perhaps another meaning of the use of “petros” is to be less specific / more general then “petra”. If so, then it refers to the person of St Peter primarily, but can also refer to things related to St Peter as well, such as his confession, or, as I believe, to the fact that God reveled this to him, that is, to divine revelation.

In this thread everyone (including me) has interpreted Acts 15 with a bias that varies in part on how we understand what Peter’s role was in the Church. And besides all this the Book of Acts is not the best book to use for trying to prove something. The Book of Acts, for example, says that baptism was done “in the name of Jesus”. But most of us would agree that the author was referring to the authority of Jesus, and that true baptism is done in the name of the Father, and the Holy Spirit, and the Son.

Early Church Fathers taught that when there is a controversy we should not only look to the scripture for an answer but that we need to consult with one of the ancient churches were the living tradition was passed down from the apostles and has continued, to find there a resolution. And, of course, Rome was perhaps the best of all churches to go to for just such a consultation. This is what we should still do, but unfortunately, after a long period of time the ancient churches don’t any longer agree with each other on some issues. Many people feel the best bet is to just follow Rome, and I can’t fault anyone for doing that. That is not what I do because I don’t believe in any sort of infallible source for the truth. But sometimes I fear that by teaching some of the things I do if I were to convince someone that the Pope is not infallible and should that result in this person falling into despair and leaving the Christian Faith all together then it would have been far better if I kept my mouth shut lest what I say may make me guilty in aiding another to fall from grace.

[user]joe370[/user] I have shared some odd teachings with you on another tread, so without talking about these odd teachings (you know what they are), would you please pray for me that I may learn to discuss things in such a way that what is said leads to building up others rather than tearing down? Thank you!

:bowdown:

God bless!
 
JohnVIII;8538058:
The council was not over. Only James had the right to conclude the council. When James rendered his judgment, his judgement was the judgement of the council. “After they had stopped speaking, James answered…” (NASV) Your word “concluded” from whatever version you are quoting from is “sigEsai” in Greek, and it means to-hush, that is to stop speaking.
JL: James probably presided over the council but I don’t see any scripture saying ONLY James had the right to conclude the council?
No, but Holy Tradition does say that. Surly it must be the same in the Latin Church as it is in all the Eastern Churches, when a synod of bishops is held it is not over until the one who is chief among them declares it to be so. The way bishops in the church relate to each other in counsel is based on customs that have been passed down to us from the apostles.
 
My belief as a High Petrine advocate is a bit more nuanced than what I have been reading from my wonderful Catholic and non-Catholic brethren.
Hello my friend and brother Marduk!

I wish you all of Gods grace to you and yours as you travel in the Philippians!
The Church is not a monarchy — much, much less an absolute monarchy. GOVERNANCE OF THE CHURCH IS SHARED BY ALL THE BISHOPS OF THE CHURCH. This is the infallible teaching of the ordinary and universal Magisterium as reflected in the Decrees of Vatican 2. Few people know this, but this teaching was also present at Vatican 1. It was explicitly contained in its Divine Consitution on the Church (De ecclesia), one of the Decrees prepared by the Vatican 1 bishop-theologians that unfortunately did not have the opportunity to be voted on due to time constraints at Vatican 1. The papal dogmas were never intended by the Vatican 1 Fathers to be (mis)interpreted to mean that the Pope has absolute power.

The principle of collegiality AND headship in the Church is of divine institution, according to the Faith of the Catholic Church, and (at least) all the Churches of the Syriac Tradition.
:bowdown::bowdown::bowdown:
There is much about the Catholic Church you may not know, brother Adrian.
You are correct, especially the Roman Catholic Church. If it weren’t for my wife (who is Roman Catholic) I would have never been motivated to even learn anything about the Roman Church as I used to have NO interest at all in the Roman Church. To me, my “Roman” Church was the 3rd Rome, that is Moscow. What I do know I learned primarily from CAF, which I never would have joined if it weren’t for my wife’s influence.
Do not let the excesses of Absolutist Petrine advocates twist your conception of the Catholic Church
I am trying the best I know how to do that thanks mainly to you and your fantanstic ability to teach! :bowdown:
…you may have missed this, but when you were debating with sister Marybeloved at one point, you stated to her that it was the Apostles who sent out Peter and John on mission, and concluded that since the one who sends is greater than the one who is sent, then Peter was subordinate to the body of Apostles. Her response to you was a classic High Petrine position - (in gist) that “the Apostles” included Peter, and you should not separate Peter from them. This is the principle of collegiality, which both the Absolutist Petrine (separating the head from the body) and Low Petrine (separating the body from the head) advocates very often (if not always) neglect. Of course, there was a point in your debate with her when you stated (correctly) that the Pope does not have absolute authority, and she (strangely, IMO) stated she disagreed with you.🤷
This answer to the verse in Acts that I made a point of is not correct because it is mixing apples and oranges (as I see it). I do agree in principle to all (well, actually “most”) that you have said both hear and elsewhere about collegiality as you contrast the High, Low, and Absolutist Petrine views. But I don’t think this verse in Acts really has anything to do with this Petrine views. I don’t think it likely that Peter sent himself, nor do I think it is likely that the apostles meant together and collegially sent Peter and John. Yes, it is true that the verse said “the apostles” sent them, but Acts is full of all sorts of inspecifics like this, just as baptism in Acts is “in the name of Jesus” rather than “the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit”. I think it is far more likely that what was meant here is that James sent Peter and John, and I thought the implication was strong enough for all to see that this was in fact the case.

Peace!
 
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