M
Mystophilus
Guest
Todd Easton:
Regarding the “masculine form of petra”, there are three problems. The first is that one noun could have two genders. “theos” (god/goddess) is probably the most common example. “petros” itself is occasionally feminine. Gender was indicated by the form of the article rather than the form of the noun. The second problem is that “petros” was a pre-existing word: Homer was writing eight centuries before the NT. The third is that the two nouns are of different declensions: had anyone wanted to make a differentiated masculine form of “petra”, then “petras” would have been the natural derivative. This is, after all, the declension in which we find Thomas, Barnabas, and Kephas.
What I think ought to be considered is the possibility that Simon himself, the man who (tradition has it) chose to be crucified upside-down because he was not worthy to die in the same fashion as his Lord, humbly wished to be only ‘the Little Rock’, not least because of the usage of “petra” to refer to God in the LXX.
Regarding the existence of the word itself, “petros” appears in the works of such writers as Homer, Pindar, Sophocles, Xenophon. These people were never forgotten by the Hellenistic world, and neither were their writings.However, if, as you suggest, the Greek word petros never appears in the voluminous Greek Septuagint with its hundreds of references to rocks and stones of various sizes, it makes me wonder if the word petros had not completely fallen out of use so as to be unknown among the Greek-speaking Jews when the Septuagint was written some years before Christ? If that is the case and the word petros wasn’t even known some years before Christ, then the word Petros at the time of Christ would most probably just be the masculinization of the female word petra, the common word for rock, to make it suitable as a man’s name.
Regarding the “masculine form of petra”, there are three problems. The first is that one noun could have two genders. “theos” (god/goddess) is probably the most common example. “petros” itself is occasionally feminine. Gender was indicated by the form of the article rather than the form of the noun. The second problem is that “petros” was a pre-existing word: Homer was writing eight centuries before the NT. The third is that the two nouns are of different declensions: had anyone wanted to make a differentiated masculine form of “petra”, then “petras” would have been the natural derivative. This is, after all, the declension in which we find Thomas, Barnabas, and Kephas.
What I think ought to be considered is the possibility that Simon himself, the man who (tradition has it) chose to be crucified upside-down because he was not worthy to die in the same fashion as his Lord, humbly wished to be only ‘the Little Rock’, not least because of the usage of “petra” to refer to God in the LXX.