P
Prodigal_Son
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On another thread, a few of us (including Touchstone) were debating the connections between Plato and Paul. It was extraordinarily off-topic there, so I’m giving it its own thread. The basic conversation is this: what are the commonalities between Plato and Paul? Did Paul distort Plato’s philosophy? etc.
That said, some replies to Touchstone’s most recent remarks…

That said, some replies to Touchstone’s most recent remarks…
For Plato, “the Good”, no matter who much we struggle to understand it, even by indirection, remains divine as a principle. It’s higher than any personality could be, and that’s Plato’s basis for exalting it – it’s NOT tainted by the will, by passion, by subjectivity.
“God’s will” does not refer to anything except our anthropomorphic conception of God. God is not described by will, passion, nor subjectivity. Nevertheless, the Christian revelation is not so snobbish as to reject anthropomorphism – we cannot but reduce the concept of God by talking about Him, and yet our words can nevertheless approximate something true. You’ll see similar anthropomorphisms even in Plato’s description of the Good; that’s how we talk when we talk about the divine.But Paul corrupts this completely, personalizing “the Good” as being found in the nature of God, and thus source in personality, obtained from a will.
Why did Plato talk so glowingly about it, then? His attitude was not that of a man with a bus ticket to where he wants to go.Note in Euthyphro how radically different the divine is from Paul’s God – it’s complete, lacking nothing, wanting nothing, silent. It would be a fool who thought it was something to “worship” or “proptiate” somehow. And this is the core of Plato’s exaltation of it.
OK, but your point was that Paul, when faced with Euthyphro, said that God and good were identical. A quotation from someone other than Paul isn’t relevant. Furthermore, the quotation doesn’t indicate that Jesus considered the Father identical with good, only that Jesus considered the Father perfectly good. The word is being used to predicate, not to define.The one that springs to mind is:
Quote:
Matt 5:48 “Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.”
How is following God’s will not enlightened, rational self-interest, if God is the one who decides your fate?Which means that what Plato says and Paul says about human goals are widely divergent. For Plato, man is really aiming at enlightened rational self-interest. For Plato sic], man is really aiming at faithful, righteous God-interest.
Likewise, the most convincing interpretation of Paul is this: extraordinarily few people have the background nor the sincerity nor the faith to see God in this life. But if they did, they would.Oh, few to none, then or now. But that’s no more here than noting that the sky is blue on sunny days. It’s a fact of nature.
But you had said that in the passage God “doesn’t love the good because the good is good, but is good because that’s his nature, to define good.” I don’t see that in Acts 17 at all.22Paul then stood up in the meeting of the Areopagus and said: "Men of Athens! I see that in every way you are very religious. 23For as I walked around and looked carefully at your objects of worship, I even found an altar with this inscription: TO AN UNKNOWN GOD. Now what you worship as something unknown I am going to proclaim to you.