No where in scripture is she considered sinless and I gave clear texts showing she like the rest of us were sinners and needed a Savior.
- And, as I have shown, there are no scriptural instances where it states that Mary was considered sinful. I even gave clear texts showing that she was indeed saved from sin.
- Really? You have shown us "CLEAR" texts? If your text-proofs are so clear, then why did the Early Church Fathers and the original Reformers reach a different conclusion than you?
- I have already shown you two things: 1) your “all have sinned” text-proof does not prove Mary was a sinner. If “all” literally means “all,” then logic dictates that Jesus must have been a sinner too. 2) “Mary needed a Savior, therefore she was a sinner” is faulty logic, and I gave a clear explanation as to why this argument doesn’t work. Why do you keep ignoring these arguments instead of actually trying to refute them?
Citing early church fathers means nothing if they too contradict scripture.
Except the Early Church Fathers do not contradict Scripture when they say that Mary was indeed sinless. The Early Church Fathers contradict
your personal interpretations of Scripture.
I mean, the Early Church Fathers read the exact same Scriptures as we do. Therefore, they too encountered your text-proofs of “all have sinned” and “all [are] under sin.” If these verses were really a problem for the Immaculate Conception, then did these great biblical scholars teach that she was indeed sinless?
This is likewise the case with the original Reformers. They were the original proponents of
Sola Scriptura, and as such they rejected any and all teachings and traditions that they found contradicted Scripture. The Reformers, however, did in fact believe Mary was saved from sin through God’s divine intervention. If your text-proofs of “all have sinned” and “all [are] under sin” really proved that Mary was a sinner, then why did the Reformers teach that she was sinless? From those facts, we can logically reason that Mary being saved from sin does not contradict Scripture. If it did, then why didn’t the Reformers reject the teaching?
no one has yet answered me on why Jesus considered John the Baptist greater than she. I would appreciate someone explaining John’s preeminence.
And you have yet answered my arguments concerning Genesis 3:15, Luke1:28, and the analogy that shows that “Mary needed a Savior, therefore she was a sinner” is faulty logic, not to mention a poor argument.
Further, no one has answered your “John the Baptist was greater than Mary” argument because it is not pertinent to the discussion. John the Baptist supposedly being greater than Mary does not disprove her being sinless.
Really, so the other 9 commandments are now no longer binding as well? Please read Matt 5:17-19 . So if the ten commandments are no longer binding and sin is the transgression of the law, than sin is no longer possible?
Worship on Saturday was a ceremonial law of the Old Covenant. The Old Covenant was fulfilled by the New Covenant. Therefore, we are no longer bound to the ceremonial laws of the Old Covenant. If you say that we have to follow a ceremonial law of the Old Covenant (i.e. worship on Saturday), then you must also agree that we have to follow all of the other ceremonial laws.
Col 2:14- 18 is clearly talking about the “handwriting of ordinances” which was the ceremonial law written by Moses; It was about the special feast day sabbaths and the food and drink offered on such days. The commandments of God written by Him on stone were never a shadow of anything. They are sure and stand fast forever Psm 111:7-8 and Matt 5:17-19
Blotting out the handwriting of the decree that was against us, which was contrary to us. And he hath taken the same out of the way, fastening it to the cross: And despoiling the principalities and powers, he hath exposed them confidently in open shew, triumphing over them in himself.Let no man therefore judge you in meat or in drink, or in respect of a festival day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbaths, Which are a shadow of things to come, but the body is of Christ. (Colossians 2:14-16)
As these verses sixteen clearly states, the Sabbath was indeed a “shadow of things to come.” This means it was fulfilled by Christ, and that we are no longer bound to worship on Sunday.
Jesus said he was Lord of the Sabbath. (Mark 2:27-28) Show me a scripture that says Sunday was the Lord’s day
Conversely, show me a single piece of Scripture that says Saturday is the Lord’s Day. You won’t find that either.
We believe Sunday is the Lord’s Day because Christ rose on Sunday. Further, the Early Church Fathers make a distinction between Saturday and Sunday; they call Sunday the “Lord’s Day,” as well as reveal to us that even the Jews believed Sunday to be the Lord’s Day.
You can worship Him any day of the week you like, but the 7th day is the day He blessed and hallowed and no other, and we are told by God to honor and worship Him on that day. That is His law so don’t be so presumptuous as to try and rationalize it away to fit a man-made tradition
We are told to worship and honor God on Saturday as part of the Old Covenant Law. The Old Covenant Law is no longer in effect. Therefore, we are no longer bound to the Old Covenant Law.
Further, as I mentioned before, the Early Church Fathers make it blatantly clear that Sunday is the new day of Christian worship. The Didache even states that the Apostles themselves commanded the Church to worship on Sunday, instead of Saturday.
The first commandment in the catholic catechism says"I am the LORD your God:you shall not have strange Gods before me. But I see nothing about warning of making an idol and worshiping it.
Why does it have too? Why is “thou shalt not have strange god before me” not a warning about worshiping idols? After all, idols
ARE indeed strange gods. Here’s a shortened version of the First Commandment: thou shalt not commit
idolatry. This indeed does encompass Exodus 20:2-5. As I said, if you worship something other than God, you’re committing idolatry. Likewise, if your worshiping idol instead of God, you’re committing idolatry.
Exodus 20:2-5 are dealing with the exact same thing: idolatry. Therefore, the Catholic Church combined Exodus 20:2-5 into one commandment.
You have to yet to provide evidence as to why Exodus 20:4 is THE Second Commandment, by the way.
In , just go to google images and type in "worshiping Mary’ and you will see Catholics bowing down before a statue of Mary.
First of all, bowing down to something does not automatically mean you’re worshiping that something. People bow to each other in Japan to greet each other, so does that mean that they are worshiping the people they are greeting?
Second of all, I can easily go on Google Images and find an image of Protestants like yourself
bowing down to something other than God or Christ. Where’s your argument now? Why are you suddenly implying that whatever is on Google is 100 percent truth?
Third of all, the Catholic Church does not worship Mary. We honor her, as she is completely deserving of our honor.
That is what happen when you start editing God’s commandments. Now it may be in other catechisms but why the discrepancies
By logic of this argument, all versions of the Ten Commandments can be accused of being a blatant attempt to “edit God’s commandments.” After all, Exodus 20 does not list any of God’s statements as “THE First Commandment” or “THE Ninth Commandment.”
Further, unless you provide evidence as to why Exodus 20:4 is THE Second Commandment, you’re making a fallacious, unsubstantiated argument.
i am looking at your Catholic catechism of the ten commandments and the second commandment as stated in all the Bibles I know, including the catholic Douay-Rheims Bible is omitted.
Because Exodus 20:4 is not the Second Commandment; it’s part of the First Commandment. Why don’t you provide evidence that Exodus 20:4 is, in fact, THE Second Commandment instead of side-stepping my arguments?