If the government passes that amendment purely because of cultural or religious dogma, such would be inconsistent with the idea that the government does not a-prior place Christian religious principles, and thus also religious definitions of human sexuality in particular, over other religions and cultural definitions. A system that does not a-prior define the legal process according to Christian law, cannot assume a-prior that the Christian religion is true or correct in regards to its moral and religious principles, especially those concerning the definition of marriage. Unless religious or moral principles can be proven without error (and thus without victimizing the public) as being rationally true and relevant to the legal process (and not just prejudice disguised in religious beliefs), you voice will fall on deaf ears precisely because you are not a theocracy and thus do not have the legal authority to dictate that Catholic principles and definitions of morality and sexuality apply necessarily in a secular system or pluralistic society.