By saying tradition guided the church I simply mean that it seems to me that it existed before the NT, is detectable within it and influenced its contents and has been strongly influential in its interpretation ever since. Of course I’m guessing you and I would both agree certain traditions that led to gnostic or docetist beliefs might not have been so faithful.
Did you know that a heretic was responsible for the first recorded attempt at an NT canon? What do you make of that?
I’m not sure if when the church in the 2nd century who attributed names to the anonymous gospels and accepted a collection of Paul’s writings were aware of the idea that Apostolicity might include the pseudonymous practice of a disciple of the Pauline “school” (or the other NT pseudonymity) considering himself an authoritative interpreter of Paul whose thought he endorsed and whose writing would be received authoritatively.
I don’t think they would have put all those ideas together in one place, especially after Jewish Christians stopped being a major part of Christianity. I do remember something that Origen said about these attributed names, though. I can’t remember exactly which books he was talking about, but he said something like “Men from of old have passed down these names as the authors of these books, but God only knows if that is actually true.” My first thought is that if these are “men from of old” according to Origen, that’s really, really old. My second thought is that there were different kinds of people that had different levels of assent to that tradition. Some heard it and said “The men from of old probably have a reliable link to actual knowledge of who wrote it. I’m secure in that.” And others believed it was just as likely that they didn’t have such a link, but God only knows if that’s true.
For that particular tradition, it seems like one of those points of view became unacceptable, then later on, it flipped to where the other one was more highly favored among Catholics.
If the later church would have know this would the writings still have been canonized?
I think so. There was still enough reason to believe they were breathed out by God.
How are these writings different from the pseudonymous apocrypha that had NT figures attached to them?
Well…on behalf of the Gospel of James, I can tell you there’s a pretty large number of geographical and historical falsehoods in it that disqualify authorship by anyone who lived in that area of the world or within a century of its falsified date. That sets it apart from Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, which do get all those little details right. Even if you give credence to Markan priority, a Q document, or any other kind of textual criticism that has to do with authorship, you can still see that the actual Gospels were at least written by people who lived in that place and time while books like the protoevangelium of James were not. That’s one example.
I’m not as familiar with all the pseudonymous apocrypha, but I do know there’s a lot more that sets them apart from genuine Scripture than just the author that’s attributed to them.
My point is simply whatever the reality is we all as Christians who accept the NT cannon by default accept the tradition that produced it within the church.
At this point, I think most Protestants accept the NT canon by default, but historically, it has been re-examined in order to affirm that the tradition is actually right. Personally, I wouldn’t be satisfied with “accepting by default” unless the tradition had been checked dozens of different ways for truth and accuracy, which it has.
I think for me personally as one entering the Catholic church the issue of infallibility of church teaching can not be reduced to indefectibility as Hans Kung has written about.
For me personally, I think the issue of infallibility of church teaching can be reduced to “anachronistic.” But that’s just me.
My reasoning: No one (and I mean no one) claimed divine protection from error or even suggested that it might be possible for an ecumenical council to do so until the 8th century. It wasn’t until the back half of the 9th century that the idea had really become popular. And now there’s Catholic scholars who spend a pretty good amount of time trying to decide which traditions prior to the 8th and 9th centuries were protected from error and which ones were not. That’s what I call anachronistic. To this point, I haven’t come across a really good reason not to call it that.
However the question as to what has been taught de fide ex ordinario magisterio is not always clear to me. This IMO is a good point you bring up.
If you’re going through some kind of Catholic ed program right now and the people in charge know what they’re doing, would you mind bringing it up at some point? If there is a good reason for me to stop using the word “anachronistic,” I definitely don’t mind knowing about it. And thanks for saying it’s a good question.
I was thinking of the Protevangelium of James 9:2 that mentions Joseph’s previous children and the later tradition from Jerome claiming they were cousins. Both agreed she never had any children herself.
From what I’ve seen, one of those traditions was banned in the West for a period of time and later reinstated as an acceptable alternative. I would have to double-check to see which it was and when it happened, though.
I agree to my understanding from what i have read this seems to be a very positive move in the last 50 years or so.
That’s what I’ve seen, too. It occurs to me that I don’t know exactly what caused that move to happen, though. I’ll have to look into it a little more.