Polygyny

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Can a Catholic man marry more than one woman (at the same time) or is that a sin? Why?
 
Sister_Amy said:
Can a Catholic man marry more than one woman (at the same time) or is that a sin? Why?
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Yes, it would be a sin. It would also be the civil crime of bigamy in most states.

I don’t know if the phrase “forsaking all others” is still in the wedding vows. If not, it should be.
 
It’s unscriptural - Jesus refers to a man cleaving to his wife (singular) rather than wives in the plural, and says the two (not the four or five or eight) shall become one flesh.
 
Sister_Amy said:
Can a Catholic man marry more than one woman (at the same time) or is that a sin? Why?
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Polygamy is a sin, no matter who practices it. This is based on the church’s teaching authority, backed up by scripture.

Genesis 2:24 “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh”.

Matthew 19:4-6 “Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate.”

Ephesians 5:31
“For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.”

Christ’s peace be with you.
 
How can it be a “mortal sin” if it was practiced by Jacob (the son of Isaac), for example? What does the church teach about the plural marriages of Biblical figures?
 
Sister_Amy said:
How can it be a “mortal sin” if it was practiced by Jacob (the son of Isaac), for example? What does the church teach about the plural marriages of Biblical figures?
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Same way divorce is now frowned on even though the OT law of Moses allowed it. Same way as Enoch (who may or may not have practiced circumcision) is fine whereas after Abraham all Jewish men had to practice it. Same way as it is no longer a sin to eat shellfish which it was for Moses.

Being God, Christ has the authority to abolish some Old Testament customs/laws (like the dietary ones), or make others stricter (like no divorce). Or impose entirely new ones (no polygyny, celebrate the Eucharist with bread and wine).

Just as God in Old Testament times had the authority to impose requirements like circumcision upon Abraham, and dietary laws upon Moses as and how He willed.

The men of the OT like Jacob were not bound by Christ’s laws, having died before He became man and taught, just as Enoch was not bound by the same laws as Abraham who was not bound by the same laws as Moses.
 
Sister_Amy said:
How can it be a “mortal sin” if it was practiced by Jacob (the son of Isaac), for example? What does the church teach about the plural marriages of Biblical figures?
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By Jesus’ time the Jewish people were no longer practicing Polygamy and considered it to be wrong.
 
no it is a sin because it is forbidden in Genesis in the creation account which clearly define marriage as between one man and one woman, and in the laws of the Church. it was permitted in the days of the early patriarchs before God had revealed Himself fully to his chosen people, but clearly prohibited by successive prophets who warned their kings and leaders of the dangers of this practice, largely because it meant marrying non-Hebrew women, which diluted and endangered the true religion. History proved the prophets were right.
 
Sister_Amy said:
How can it be a “mortal sin” if it was practiced by Jacob (the son of Isaac), for example? What does the church teach about the plural marriages of Biblical figures?
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See Amy we more or less go by the New Testament. When Jesus came back he fulfilled the Old Testament. Then thats how we got the New Testament. He, i dont want to say changed alot of things, but he explained them alot better. When Jesus came he showed us the human Part of GOd. Thats he made things alot clearer. More or less when he came back he took away death. And by that death he paid for our sins. And before he left he showed us what we had to do to get into heaven. Hope that explains it right for you.
 
Sister_Amy said:
Why would God’s Law change?
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It doesn’t. God’s law stays the same.

The Old Testament doesn’t always say what God’s opinion is on some aspects of Old Testament stories. Remember God did not say whether Jacob’s actions of marrying more then one wife was good or bad. But every man in the Old Testament who had more then one wife had family problems.
 
Sister_Amy said:
Why would God’s Law change?
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He made differing covenants with man. A covenant is a relationship. In Eden, He told our ancestors that they could eat of all of the trees, except the tree of knowledge of good and evil. They broke that covenant and suffered the consequences. His law was that they could eat without toiling and Eve would bring forth children without pain. Once, through disobedience, they had broken the covenant, man had to survive by the sweat of his brow, and childbirth was filled with pain. That is how God altered His relationship with our ancestors.

Christ’s peace.
 
Sister_Amy said:
When did the law about polygamy change?
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CCC Quote: Moral conscience concerning the unity and indissolubility of marriage developed under the pedagogy of the the old law. In the OT the polygamy of partriarchs and kings is not yet explicitly rejected. Nevertheless the law given to Moses aims at protecting the wife from arbitary domination by husband eventhough according to the Lords words it still carries traces of mans Hardness of heart. which was the reason Moses permitted men to divorce their wives.
 
Sister_Amy said:
How can it be a “mortal sin” if it was practiced by Jacob (the son of Isaac), for example? What does the church teach about the plural marriages of Biblical figures?
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The first point is, the Church does not teach that the patriarchs lived sinless lives. Nearly all the great old Testament figures sinned in some way.

The Catechism of the Catholic Church speaks of the “pedagogy of the Old Law” under which polygamy was allowed but then later rejected (CCC 1610). This is just a fancy way of saying that God reveals himself in stages, gradually over the course of history. This is a method of teaching (pedagogy). You do not try to teach calculus to someone who does not know their times tables. You start with the basics first, and then move on to the harder stuff. This is how God works, too.
Sister_Amy said:
Why would God’s Law change?
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It is important here to realize that there are different types of law in the Old Testament. The ten commandments and the dietary laws are not the same types of law.

Ezekiel 20:25 says “Moreover I gave them statutes [laws] that were not good and ordinances by which they could not have life.” So God is saying to Ezekiel that some of the laws He gave were “not good.” What does this mean?

Drs. Scott Hahn and John Bergsma have written an excellent article explaining this. The article is a bit academic, but here is the basic premise:

Galatians 3:19 says “Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made”

Sin makes us progressively illiterate in reading the natural law. Thus, the more Israel sinned, the more laws God added.

Hebrews 7:12 says, “For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well.”

When was there a change in the priesthood? With the golden calf incident (Exodus 32) and the worship of Baal of Peor (Numbers 25). In both cases Israel sinned, the priesthood was narrowed, and more laws were added. The first incident resulted in the Book of Leviticus. The Second in the Book of Deuteronomy.

Deuteronomy has many of the “concessionary laws” such as those permitting divorce. These laws expired with New Covenant of Jesus.

Laws like the Ten Commandments are not of the same nature. They do not change.

I feel like my post must be very confusing. It makes sense in my head, but sometimes I’m not sure how it sounds when I type it all out! Hopefully it helps. If not, then I guess you can just ignore it! 🙂
 
The OP asked about a Catholic man marrying more than one wife at a time. Some of the Jewish faith, in particular those who live in Muslim countries still allow polygamy. Polygamous families from those countries who migrate to Israel are quietly "grandfathered’ in. There are groups in Israel who advocate changing the Israeli civil law to openly allow polygamy. Polygamy is also legal in many if not all countries under the Sharia form of law. Because civil law in most Western countries still has its source in Christian ethos, polygamy is not allowed.
 
Sister_Amy said:
Can a Catholic man marry more than one woman (at the same time) or is that a sin? Why?
Click to expand...
No Amy its in the marriage vows. Because marriage is a sacrament. when they get married they are no longer two but one flesh.
 
What does Catholicism teach about a woman who is married to a man who has another wife?
 
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