P
PRmerger
Guest
Indeed!!Primary sources would be papal encyclicals or dogmatic decrees from ecumenical councils. The words “condom” or “prophylactic” do not appear in either Humanae Vitae or in Evangelium Vitae. The two dogmatic constitutions coming out of Vat II do not address human sexuality. Those who post here extrapolations beyond the letter or plain meaning of the two encyclicals noted above should at least cite their Licentiate of Sacred Theology (S.T.L.) credentials or proffer their posts as opinion only.
The authority to teach, Christ’s prophetic office, resides in all the bishops. Throughout all the Church history, when bishops disagree, as they do on the specific use of condoms as you have outlined, the pope resolves the disagreement. In this particular case, as I have cited, “Roma non loquita.” The pope is waiting his download from the Holy Spirit. In the meantime, we who also share in Christ’s prophetic office through baptism must seek through prayer and counsel the will of God in our own life.
Peace,
O’Malley
If I could see a Magisterial statement that declares that if a woman is on the Pill she should refrain from sexual relations for the entirety of her treatment, I would accept and obey and proclaim it. However, I have only seen Christopher West and other individuals–however knowledgable, good and holy–declare this. To quote allhers: *Afterall, if someone is saying things with some authority that could be implied to mean that what they are saying is in fact, FACT about Church teaching, but it isn’t always, for example, …(just because an individual in the Church says something, doesn’t make it Church teaching.) *
And, I’ve seen on these websites many errors–such as statements maintaining that the Pill is *always *an abortifacient. (from all.org/article.php?id=10162 Plus, the birth control pill ALWAYS has an abortifacient effect, putting any baby conceived at risk of death from the drug the woman is taking. ) *Not true.!! ** If it does not succeed in preventing ovulation, and fertilization occurs, then it is an abortifacient. If, however, it suppresses ovulation, then it has not destroyed any human life. * A very important distinction.
Also, I am very interested in being able to present a cogent argument to non-believers as to why we as Catholics can use the Pill for medical reasons, but not use a condom for medical reasons.