The term “teaching” here makes the statement true, but it also makes the claim virtually meaningless. There is a range of teachings in the church from prudential judgments up to infallible declarations, and while it is true that change occurs in some categories it is equally true that it does not occur in them all. This is the point Elizium23 was making. A discipline, such as not eating after midnight before receiving communion, since it is set by the church can be changed by the church at her pleasure. Other teachings are set by Christ himself and the church has no authority whatever to change them.
In this case, while she cannot change the indissoluble nature of marriage, “*the Church has the authority to clarify those conditions which must be fulfilled for a marriage to be considered indissoluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching.” *(Ratzinger) Those conditions may (within limits) change over time, even as the nature of marriage cannot.
Ender
It is the
understanding of “those conditions which must be fullfilled for a marriage to be considered indissoluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching” that can change. One is not free to proclaim that any particular teaching cannot change. This is dogma.
For example, there is the exception in the Matthew verses concerning ‘fornication’. In the original text it is a Greek word, and there are many interpretations concerning what ‘porneia’ means. I don’t wish to enter that discussion, but the Douay-Rheims translates the word as ‘fornication’. Though ignored in practice, this translation from Latin stood for centuries. The NAB now translates the word as meaning “unless the marriage is unlawful”. Is this change not a clarification of “those conditions which must be fulfilled for a marriage to be indissouluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching”?
The recent change of the translation of the Nicene Creed in the Liturgy of the Mass from “one in Being with the Father” to “consubstantial with the Father” concerns the very nature of Christ. The difference was a major point of contention during the Council of Nicaea. The change involves a difference in the translation and meaning of a word–“Being”-- in Greek and Latin.
As I noted in comment #283, neither Matthew 5:32, 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; or Luke 16:18 says that the one “put away” or divorced commits adultery. The relevant verses in Matthew say only that she is ‘maketh’ to commit adultery and the one that is put away is otherwise unmentioned with respect to adultery. Even if the second marriage itself were understood as adultery, where does Jesus say the mistake cannot be forgiven? He never says it would be a moral imperative to leave
that second marriage too. In that era, in that time and place, there were major and even severe consequences for a wife “put away”. Did Christ mean to say this error could not be forgiven and must be repeated? Christ did not summarily turn away from sinners in judgment. The teachings of Christ concern mercy, forgiveness of sin and salvation.
The disagreement concerns who should make the judgement that any
particular divorced and remarried Catholic who has not obtained an annullment should or should not be permitted to receive communion. (This is a question of discipline, and I fully agree a person in the state of mortal sin should not take communion.) The disagreement concerns who ought to make that judgment. How would I know whether a person receiving communion is not violating Humanae Vitae or committing any other sin and thus is in the state of mortal sin? I don’t know. And I don’t believe it is for me to judge. In my view if a person wishes to receive communion, it is their determination to make. If they then err, it is their responsibility.
We have shown that to conclude that a given individual in the situation in question is in the objective state of mortal is a presumption and logically invalid. There is for each person the subjective element and what this might entail cannot be objectively determined by presumption, just as surely as it cannot be determined for all such persons by presumption. CCC 1862 recognizes this reality.
Who ought to make this determination? Since it concerns the salvation of a person’s soul, to arbitrarily deny the sacraments to a Catholic on the basis of a presumption that is a judgment of the person’s soul cannot be a good thing for
anyone involved. It is risky business. I believe doing so is contrary to Matthew 7.1. At the Last Judgement, a person will stand alone. It cannot be right for any person to interfere in the spiritual life of another person, and to assume spiritual responsibility for another person is, as I said above, risky business–lest one end up so judged.
Since you quote Cardinal Newman, I trust you are aware of his sentiments concerning Pope Pius IX’s proclamation of papal infallibility during Vatican I.
This too can change at any given moment. When I made the comment that to believe Church teaching is static and forever fixed was a ‘conservative’ view, I meant it only as a dictionary would define the word and not in any sense political. It seems this important distinction is vanishing, but it is what I meant. It is a fact that popes, cardinals, bishops and other Church leaders are often described as conservative or liberal. Yes, they are all Catholic. As I see it, there is no right or wrong here but rather that it is the natural interaction of opposing views that is the very dynamic that propels discussion, change and history. I believe
Die verbum recognizes that this will necessary continue until the end of time. I also meant that the fact the Church has not withered and died is the result of the Holy Spirit in the context of
Die verbum.