Pope Francis: Divorced Catholics who remarry are not 'excommunicated.'

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Catholicism is what it is today as the result of a 2,000 year process. If the Church had not evolved during this long period, it might not exist today and might not even have survived the Roman Empire. To believe that the teachings of today are permanently fixed and always were is a conservative view. But if the Church is static and the process of change does not continue until the end of time and the full revelation, the Church will wither and die.
Thankfully there are so many wise people today who will save the Church from withering and dying. They will be able to change the obvious errors God has made and prevent the Church from dying, which God is incapable of protecting. :rolleyes::rolleyes::rolleyes:
 
Thankfully there are so many wise people today who will save the Church from withering and dying. They will be able to change the obvious errors God has made and prevent the Church from dying, which God is incapable of protecting. :rolleyes::rolleyes::rolleyes:
Though your reply is hardly a fair interpretation of my comment, you might want to take a look at Die verbum. No one has said God has, could or would make any errors, and to say I might have suggested it is really not to add to the discussion in any positive way.
 
Assuming a marriage is valid is to assume the best and can hardly be considered a rash judgment. /QUOTE] I will just have to disagree if that means someone is in mortal sin and going to Hell. I have always considered Hell bad, not the best.
I really struggle to understand how such a straightforward assertion (“Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery…”) can be emptied of its meaning. If that statement doesn’t mean what it says then why would we believe any other statement is meaningful either?
 
Thankfully there are so many wise people today who will save the Church from withering and dying. They will be able to change the obvious errors God has made and prevent the Church from dying, which God is incapable of protecting. :rolleyes::rolleyes::rolleyes:
Despite the sarcasm, I note that we do have a wise pope that believes marriage issues do need to be examined in an attempt to be more ministerial. Why denigrate people for being in union with the Holy Father in this desire?
 
Despite the sarcasm, I note that we do have a wise pope that believes marriage issues do need to be examined in an attempt to be more ministerial. Why denigrate people for being in union with the Holy Father in this desire?
probably because we’re seeing an attempt to polarize Catholics again. It appears to be the kind of strategy that, despite its having been pointed out over and over, still seems to ‘work’. Back when Pope Benedict was Pope, the strategy was to paint him as being against everything that liberal-minded people held dear. . .to twist and distort his words and actions in every possible way to make it seem that he and any who agreed with those ‘distortions’ --and make no mistake, any person who identified as ‘conservative’ was assumed to hold all these distorted pseudo-conservative ideas and to be hell-bent on forcing them onto 'normal people-- and hey, that worked beautifully. You had conservatives constantly on the defensive when supposedly ‘their’ leader was on their side.

Now that Pope Francis is Pope, the strategy is to paint him as being against everything that conservative-minded people hold dear-- to twist and distort his words and actions in every possible way. However since now many of the issues identified as ‘liberal’ are also those of the mainstream non-religious people, the idea is now to paint those who disagree with the DISTORTIONS which are presented as liberal thinking as being idiots, bigots, supremacists, elitists, etc.

What people don’t seem to realize is that both liberals and conservatives are being USED and targeted in exactly the same way as they were in the previous pontificate, even though different ‘worldviews’ are being presented as being ‘under fire’.

In the first pontificate, the conservative view was seen as being forced onto people, and the ‘minority’ was supposedly attacking the majority.

In the second pontificate, the liberal view is seen as ‘common sense at last’ and trying to ‘move on’ to a ‘real’ Church. The conservatives are no longer ‘powerful’ so their arguments are seen as rants and ravings.

Of course the sheer satanic brilliance is that in both pontificates, the Popes themselves are neither ‘conservative’ nor ‘liberal’ but simply Catholic. There is no difference whatsoever in what Pope Francis and Pope Benedict believe, as Catholics. The only difference, which has nothing to do with ‘conservativism’ or ‘liberalism’, is the way each individual MAN addresses what Christ has called him to do.

But if you can get a whole group of Catholics to believe that one Pope is more ‘Catholic’ than the other; if you can get them fighting amongst themselves trying to rally behind the Pope who ‘got it right’, then they don’t have any time, as Catholics, actually to work TOGETHER and FOLLOW what both Popes are calling upon their flocks to do.

Diabolical,. . .and in the Internet age, so easy.
 
probably because we’re seeing an attempt to polarize Catholics again. It appears to be the kind of strategy that, despite its having been pointed out over and over, still seems to ‘work’.
I would think the solution would be to opt out of playing the game, since we know it is rigged. We must accept that many will use selective quotes and spin to make it appear the Pope as a political ally. It will happen and we can do nothing about it.
 
The term “teaching” here makes the statement true, but it also makes the claim virtually meaningless. There is a range of teachings in the church from prudential judgments up to infallible declarations, and while it is true that change occurs in some categories it is equally true that it does not occur in them all. This is the point Elizium23 was making. A discipline, such as not eating after midnight before receiving communion, since it is set by the church can be changed by the church at her pleasure. Other teachings are set by Christ himself and the church has no authority whatever to change them.

In this case, while she cannot change the indissoluble nature of marriage, “*the Church has the authority to clarify those conditions which must be fulfilled for a marriage to be considered indissoluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching.” *(Ratzinger) Those conditions may (within limits) change over time, even as the nature of marriage cannot.

Ender
It is the understanding of “those conditions which must be fullfilled for a marriage to be considered indissoluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching” that can change. One is not free to proclaim that any particular teaching cannot change. This is dogma.

For example, there is the exception in the Matthew verses concerning ‘fornication’. In the original text it is a Greek word, and there are many interpretations concerning what ‘porneia’ means. I don’t wish to enter that discussion, but the Douay-Rheims translates the word as ‘fornication’. Though ignored in practice, this translation from Latin stood for centuries. The NAB now translates the word as meaning “unless the marriage is unlawful”. Is this change not a clarification of “those conditions which must be fulfilled for a marriage to be indissouluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching”?

The recent change of the translation of the Nicene Creed in the Liturgy of the Mass from “one in Being with the Father” to “consubstantial with the Father” concerns the very nature of Christ. The difference was a major point of contention during the Council of Nicaea. The change involves a difference in the translation and meaning of a word–“Being”-- in Greek and Latin.

As I noted in comment #283, neither Matthew 5:32, 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; or Luke 16:18 says that the one “put away” or divorced commits adultery. The relevant verses in Matthew say only that she is ‘maketh’ to commit adultery and the one that is put away is otherwise unmentioned with respect to adultery. Even if the second marriage itself were understood as adultery, where does Jesus say the mistake cannot be forgiven? He never says it would be a moral imperative to leave that second marriage too. In that era, in that time and place, there were major and even severe consequences for a wife “put away”. Did Christ mean to say this error could not be forgiven and must be repeated? Christ did not summarily turn away from sinners in judgment. The teachings of Christ concern mercy, forgiveness of sin and salvation.

The disagreement concerns who should make the judgement that any particular divorced and remarried Catholic who has not obtained an annullment should or should not be permitted to receive communion. (This is a question of discipline, and I fully agree a person in the state of mortal sin should not take communion.) The disagreement concerns who ought to make that judgment. How would I know whether a person receiving communion is not violating Humanae Vitae or committing any other sin and thus is in the state of mortal sin? I don’t know. And I don’t believe it is for me to judge. In my view if a person wishes to receive communion, it is their determination to make. If they then err, it is their responsibility.

We have shown that to conclude that a given individual in the situation in question is in the objective state of mortal is a presumption and logically invalid. There is for each person the subjective element and what this might entail cannot be objectively determined by presumption, just as surely as it cannot be determined for all such persons by presumption. CCC 1862 recognizes this reality.

Who ought to make this determination? Since it concerns the salvation of a person’s soul, to arbitrarily deny the sacraments to a Catholic on the basis of a presumption that is a judgment of the person’s soul cannot be a good thing for anyone involved. It is risky business. I believe doing so is contrary to Matthew 7.1. At the Last Judgement, a person will stand alone. It cannot be right for any person to interfere in the spiritual life of another person, and to assume spiritual responsibility for another person is, as I said above, risky business–lest one end up so judged.

Since you quote Cardinal Newman, I trust you are aware of his sentiments concerning Pope Pius IX’s proclamation of papal infallibility during Vatican I. This too can change at any given moment. When I made the comment that to believe Church teaching is static and forever fixed was a ‘conservative’ view, I meant it only as a dictionary would define the word and not in any sense political. It seems this important distinction is vanishing, but it is what I meant. It is a fact that popes, cardinals, bishops and other Church leaders are often described as conservative or liberal. Yes, they are all Catholic. As I see it, there is no right or wrong here but rather that it is the natural interaction of opposing views that is the very dynamic that propels discussion, change and history. I believe Die verbum recognizes that this will necessary continue until the end of time. I also meant that the fact the Church has not withered and died is the result of the Holy Spirit in the context of Die verbum.
 
It is the understanding of “those conditions which must be fullfilled for a marriage to be considered indissoluble according to the sense of Jesus’ teaching” that can change.
Yes, but this is a different issue. We have exceptions today; this is why some marriages can be annulled, and no one has suggested that the conditions could not be altered is some ways. The issue of primary concern, however, is whether those whose first marriages have not been annulled should be allowed to receive communion.
One is not free to proclaim that any particular teaching cannot change. This is dogma.
It is in fact dogma that some teachings cannot change; that’s what an infallible teaching is.
The recent change of the translation of the Nicene Creed in the Liturgy of the Mass from “one in Being with the Father” to “consubstantial with the Father” concerns the very nature of Christ. The difference was a major point of contention during the Council of Nicaea. The change involves a difference in the translation and meaning of a word–“Being”-- in Greek and Latin.
That point was decided at Nicea; it had nothing to do with the Liturgical change which simply incorporated an English term that was felt to more closely express the original concept. The concept was in no way changed. But this is all beside the point. The ban on the reception of communion by those in irregular marriages cannot be altered without a doctrinal change. You’ve already said you don’t expect doctrine to change, so why are you arguing for that possibility?
As I noted in comment #283, neither Matthew 5:32, 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; or Luke 16:18 says that the one “put away” or divorced commits adultery. The relevant verses in Matthew …
The relevant verses are those the church has issued on the subject. Our personal interpretations are meaningless.
The teachings of Christ concern mercy, forgiveness of sin and salvation.
Yes, so? What conclusion are we to draw from this? Are you arguing for a specific position or simply making a random, irrelevant observation?
The disagreement concerns who should make the judgement that any particular divorced and remarried Catholic who has not obtained an annulment should or should not be permitted to receive communion.
This is certainly one issue. Basically this is the “Catholic divorce” option.
(This is a question of discipline, and I fully agree a person in the state of mortal sin should not take communion.) The disagreement concerns who ought to make that judgment.
What it would come down to is a question of whether there is a standard set of criteria governing all cases (as it is today) or whether it would be left to the personal discretion of individual clergy. The latter case would take clergy-shopping to a whole other level.
How would I know whether a person receiving communion is not violating Humanae Vitae or committing any other sin and thus is in the state of mortal sin? I don’t know. And I don’t believe it is for me to judge.
You can’t judge things you cannot know. On the other hand if it is known that a person is in an irregular marriage that fact cannot simply be ignored because there is no photographic evidence of what goes on in the bedroom.
In my view if a person wishes to receive communion, it is their determination to make. If they then err, it is their responsibility.
The church does not share that view. The minister of communion has a responsibility not to give communion to someone “obstinately persevering in manifest, grave, sin.”
We have shown that to conclude that a given individual in the situation in question is in the objective state of mortal is a presumption and logically invalid.
You have shown no such thing. An invalid premise in no way invalidates the logic of a conclusion. Yes, it is a presumption, and it is the presumption the church makes.
Who ought to make this determination?
The church has already decided this. Are you arguing that she is wrong to do so? The individual has the right and the obligation to clear up the understanding if it is wrong, but until he does that, he is presumptively banned from communion.
Since it concerns the salvation of a person’s soul, to arbitrarily deny the sacraments to a Catholic on the basis of a presumption that is a judgment of the person’s soul cannot be a good thing for anyone involved.
It is neither arbitrary nor is it a judgment of a person’s soul. It is a judgment based on the public actions of the people involved.
Since you quote Cardinal Newman, I trust you are aware of his sentiments concerning Pope Pius IX’s proclamation of papal infallibility during Vatican I.
Whatever, it has nothing to do with his (or Cardinal Dulles’) comments on doctrinal development.

Ender
 
Yes, but this is a different issue. We have exceptions today; this is why some marriages can be annulled, and no one has suggested that the conditions could not be altered is some ways. The issue of primary concern, however, is whether those whose first marriages have not been annulled should be allowed to receive communion.
It is in fact dogma that some teachings cannot change; that’s what an infallible teaching is.
That point was decided at Nicea; it had nothing to do with the Liturgical change which simply incorporated an English term that was felt to more closely express the original concept. The concept was in no way changed. But this is all beside the point. The ban on the reception of communion by those in irregular marriages cannot be altered without a doctrinal change. You’ve already said you don’t expect doctrine to change, so why are you arguing for that possibility?
The relevant verses are those the church has issued on the subject. Our personal interpretations are meaningless.
Yes, so? What conclusion are we to draw from this? Are you arguing for a specific position or simply making a random, irrelevant observation?
This is certainly one issue. Basically this is the “Catholic divorce” option.
What it would come down to is a question of whether there is a standard set of criteria governing all cases (as it is today) or whether it would be left to the personal discretion of individual clergy. The latter case would take clergy-shopping to a whole other level.
You can’t judge things you cannot know. On the other hand if it is known that a person is in an irregular marriage that fact cannot simply be ignored because there is no photographic evidence of what goes on in the bedroom.
The church does not share that view. The minister of communion has a responsibility not to give communion to someone “obstinately persevering in manifest, grave, sin.”
You have shown no such thing. An invalid premise in no way invalidates the logic of a conclusion. Yes, it is a presumption, and it is the presumption the church makes.
The church has already decided this. Are you arguing that she is wrong to do so? The individual has the right and the obligation to clear up the understanding if it is wrong, but until he does that, he is presumptively banned from communion.
It is neither arbitrary nor is it a judgment of a person’s soul. It is a judgment based on the public actions of the people involved.
Whatever, it has nothing to do with his (or Cardinal Dulles’) comments on doctrinal development.

Ender
At the infallible Ecumenical Council of Florence - Ferrara a reunion was proclaimed between the Roman Church and the Eastern Orthodox Church. I don’t believe that as part of the agreement, there was any declaration that the Orthodox had to stop giving Church sponsored divorces?
 
You have shown no such thing. An invalid premise in no way invalidates the logic of a conclusion. Yes, it is a presumption, and it is the presumption the church makes.

Ender
(sigh)

All cats fly airplanes.
Bucky is a cat.
Therefore, Bucky flies airplanes.

The conclusion, 3), that Bucky, a cat, flies airplanes is true?
 
(sigh)

All cats fly airplanes.
Bucky is a cat.
Therefore, Bucky flies airplanes.

The conclusion, 3), that Bucky, a cat, flies airplanes is true?
Hey, no need to bring cats into this. Don’t make me bring my cat back out. 😃
 
(sigh)

All cats fly airplanes.
Bucky is a cat.
Therefore, Bucky flies airplanes.

The conclusion, 3), that Bucky, a cat, flies airplanes is true?
No, it is not true. It is, however, a logical conclusion. You may accurately say the conclusion is nonsense, but you cannot claim it is illogical. A premise is flawed, but the conclusion is not.

Ender
 
At the infallible Ecumenical Council of Florence - Ferrara a reunion was proclaimed between the Roman Church and the Eastern Orthodox Church. I don’t believe that as part of the agreement, there was any declaration that the Orthodox had to stop giving Church sponsored divorces?
You should read this entire document; it isn’t that long and addresses the Eastern church.On doctrinal grounds, the praxis of the Eastern churches separated from Rome cannot be taken up by the Catholic Church, as it is the result of a complex historical process, an increasingly liberal – and thus more and more removed from the words of the Lord – interpretation of several obscure patristic texts which were significantly influenced by civil law. Furthermore, the claim is incorrect that the Church simply tolerated such a praxis. Admittedly, the Council of Trent did not pronounce any explicit condemnation. The medieval canonists, however, consistently spoke of the praxis as improper. Furthermore, there is evidence that groups of Orthodox believers who became Catholic had to sign a profession of faith with an explicit reference to the impossibility of a second marriage. (Cardinal Ratzinger)

Ender
 
It is in fact dogma that some teachings cannot change; that’s what an infallible teaching is.
It is the understanding of dogma that can and does change.
That point was decided at Nicea; it had nothing to do with the Liturgical change which simply incorporated an English term that was felt to more closely express the original concept. The concept was in no way changed. But this is all beside the point. The ban on the reception of communion by those in irregular marriages cannot be altered without a doctrinal change. You’ve already said you don’t expect doctrine to change, so why are you arguing for that possibility?
The original concept was the Greek word for ‘Being’, which is ‘ouisa’. Latin lacks a present participle for the word “to be”. ‘Ouisa’ was translated to Latin as ‘consubstantialis’, which connotes both Being and substance. It translates from Latin to English as “consubstantial”. I only mentioned it as an example.

I am not arguing for doctrine to change. You have said this question concerns doctrine and that no change can occur without a change in doctrine. In reply, I have said that even if that were correct, the understanding of doctrine can advance. You argued against this, saying that what is now understood as doctrine remains unchanged and is as it was at the very beginnings of Christianity. I disagreed and finally cited the dogmatic constitution Die verbum to show why you were incorrect. Understanding of doctrine advances with revelation, and this understanding is open to believers.
The relevant verses are those the church has issued on the subject. Our personal interpretations are meaningless.
There was no personal interpretation. The verses speak for themselves.
Yes, so? What conclusion are we to draw from this? Are you arguing for a specific position or simply making a random, irrelevant observation?
If it is believed that it is an irrelevant observation that the teachings of Christ concern mercy, forgiveness of sin, and salvation when the question concerns the salvation of souls, then it would seem futile to try to explain.
This is certainly one issue. Basically this is the “Catholic divorce” option.

What it would come down to is a question of whether there is a standard set of criteria governing all cases (as it is today) or whether it would be left to the personal discretion of individual clergy. The latter case would take clergy-shopping to a whole other level.
It would seem fair to say you are opposed to any change with respect to this question, or at least believe change is impossible. When I noted it was a question before the Synod of Bishops you dismissed it out of hand, saying the question was already answered when Church teaching is followed.

There are many questions besides the question of divorced and remarried Catholics who have not obtained an annullment receiving communion. What, for instance, of Humanae Vitae? There is a vast amount of data indicating that upwards of 90% of U.S. Catholics have, during the past half century, rejected the teaching and also have at a point in their lives rejected it while continuing to practice their faith. This much at least known. Since it is statistically probable that a married Catholic of a certain age group is violating Human Vitae, why not ban the entire group from receiving communion? This would only entail the same sort of illlogic.
You can’t judge things you cannot know. On the other hand if it is known that a person is in an irregular marriage that fact cannot simply be ignored because there is no photographic evidence of what goes on in the bedroom.
If you can’t judge things you cannot know, then you can’t judge what is unknown and occurs in the privacy of a bedroom. With all due respect, this is not difficult. However, it is the thing, central to your argument, that you either cannot see or won’t acknowledge.
The church does not share that view. The minister of communion has a responsibility not to give communion to someone “obstinately persevering in manifest, grave, sin.”
I agree when this is known. It conceivably could apply in instances where a Catholic obstinately persists in manifest grave violation of the papal encyclical Laudato Si.
You have shown no such thing. An invalid premise in no way invalidates the logic of a conclusion. Yes, it is a presumption, and it is the presumption the church makes.
All horses are male.
X is a horse.
Therefore, X is male.

The premise that all horses are male hardly proves that X is a male. The premise is false. The premise that all divorced and remarried Catholic should not be permitted to receive communion because they are *objectively in a state of mortal sin is also false. The conclusion of the argument, though logically valid, is not proven to be true in either example. The false premise that all horses are male does not prove it true that horse X is male.

(Part 1 of 2)
 
(Part 2 of 2)
The church has already decided this. Are you arguing that she is wrong to do so? The individual has the right and the obligation to clear up the understanding if it is wrong, but until he does that, he is presumptively banned from communion.
It is neither arbitrary nor is it a judgment of a person’s soul. It is a judgment based on the public actions of the people involved.
Presumptively indeed, but not a fact. Yes, the person is presumptively banned, so why say so and then once again argue it isn’t the case in the next sentence. Am I arguing that the Church is wrong? What I initially said is that to address this question in some ways doctrine would not have to be changed. What I do disagree with is your assertion that this isn’t even a question when doctrine is followed. The question was put before the Synod of Bishops by the Supreme Pontiff. Are you arguing that he is wrong?

Does everyone similarly need to clear up any presumptions before receiving communion, or only divorced and remarried Catholics who have not received an annullment? Of course it is a presumptive judgment of a person’s soul. Where else might a mortal sin reside? The presumptive and arbitrary judgment in this instance is based on so-called “public actions” What “public actions”? Certainly not adultery. “Public actions” are not within a person’s soul. It is properly a matter of the primacy of conscience, and it will not do in light of Die verbum to reply with circular logic. In fact, the teaching is that a person must obey the dictates of conscience. This is a moral imperative.
Whatever, it has nothing to do with his (or Cardinal Dulles’) comments on doctrinal development.
Au contraire. Cardinal Newman strongly questioned the way papal infallibility came about during Vatican I. I will not go into the issue here, but suffice it to say Die verbum was in part a response.
 
If it is believed that it is an irrelevant observation that the teachings of Christ concern mercy, forgiveness of sin, and salvation when the question concerns the salvation of souls, then it would seem futile to try to explain.
God is good. Jesus loves you. These truisms are also irrelevant to the particular topic. Like your comments, there is nothing I can conclude from them regarding the question of whether communion ought to be given to those in irregular marriages. If you would like to try applying those concepts by suggesting something concrete, I’ll be sure to respond.
It would seem fair to say you are opposed to any change with respect to this question, or at least believe change is impossible.
This is incorrect. My comments are specific, not generic. I have never said *no *change is possible; what I have said is that in order for someone in an irregular situation to receive communion a major tenet of the church’s teaching would have to be reversed.
When I noted it was a question before the Synod of Bishops you dismissed it out of hand, saying the question was already answered when Church teaching is followed.
Yes, there are some bishops who would support just such a doctrinal change. That doesn’t mean such change is actually possible.
There are many questions besides the question of divorced and remarried Catholics who have not obtained an annullment receiving communion.
Yes there are. It’s just that those “other” questions have not generated anything like the concern raised by communion for the divorced and remarried.
What, for instance, of Humanae Vitae? There is a vast amount of data indicating that upwards of 90% of U.S. Catholics have, during the past half century, rejected the teaching and also have at a point in their lives rejected it while continuing to practice their faith.
Again, what is the relevance of this statistic, whatever it is? Should doctrine be determined by the church or public opinion in the US?
This much at least known. Since it is statistically probable that a married Catholic of a certain age group is violating Human Vitae, why not ban the entire group from receiving communion? This would only entail the same sort of illlogic.
Not at all, but this comparison demonstrates the distinction between the two cases, and it has to do with what is publicly known and what is privately known.

Canon 916 tells the individual that he is not to receive if he is conscious of having committed a grave sin. Neither the priest nor anyone other than the couple involved knows whether they use contraception, nor is there any indication one way or the other. In such a case there is obviously no justification whatever for assuming the worst.

Canon 915 tells the minister of communion that he is not to distribute communion to anyone “persisting in manifest, grave, sin.” The key distinction here is the word manifest, meaning it is public. In the case of a person in an irregular marriage, if it is publicly known, then public reception of communion would be scandalous. This is why the church allows it only privately even if the couple formally asserts to the priest that they are not having sexual relations.
If you can’t judge things you cannot know, then you can’t judge what is unknown and occurs in the privacy of a bedroom. With all due respect, this is not difficult. However, it is the thing, central to your argument, that you either cannot see or won’t acknowledge.
The appearance, however, can be judged since it is public, and it is the appearance of sin that is the problem.
I agree when this is known. It conceivably could apply in instances where a Catholic obstinately persists in manifest grave violation of the papal encyclical Laudato Si.
This is more than a little vague. What violation of the encyclical did you have in mind?

Ender
 
Presumptively indeed, but not a fact. Yes, the person is presumptively banned, so why say so and then once again argue it isn’t the case in the next sentence.
I didn’t. You have put too broad an interpretation on my comments.
Am I arguing that the Church is wrong? What I initially said is that to address this question in some ways doctrine would not have to be changed. What I do disagree with is your assertion that this isn’t even a question when doctrine is followed.
I think the only way to permit communion in these cases without specifically changing doctrine would be to expand the grounds for annulment to the extent that they become basically meaningless. This is the “Catholic divorce” option.
The question was put before the Synod of Bishops by the Supreme Pontiff. Are you arguing that he is wrong?
I don’t believe it was. Can you cite where Francis asked the synod to re-examine the question of giving communion to divorced and remarried Catholics?
Does everyone similarly need to clear up any presumptions before receiving communion, or only divorced and remarried Catholics who have not received an annullment?
I would assume that anyone giving the appearance of persevering in manifest, grave sin would also be excluded.
Of course it is a presumptive judgment of a person’s soul.
It is a judgment of a person’s public actions. That part isn’t presumptive, and it is done to protect others from scandal.*A thing is said to be less right…because it has some lack of rectitude, either through being evil in itself, such as sin, or through having an appearance of evil. Thus, for instance, if a man were to “sit at meat in the idol’s temple” (1 Cor. 8:10), though this is not sinful in itself, provided it be done with no evil intention, yet, since it has a certain appearance of evil, and a semblance of worshipping the idol, it might occasion another man’s spiritual downfall. Hence the Apostle says (1 Thess. 5:22): “From all appearance of evil refrain yourselves.” Scandal is therefore fittingly described as something done “less rightly,” so as to comprise both whatever is sinful in itself, and all that has an appearance of evil. *(Aquinas ST II-II 43, 1 ad 2)
The presumptive and arbitrary judgment in this instance is based on so-called “public actions” What “public actions”?
The act is the marriage outside of the church. We have already stipulated that this is known.
It is properly a matter of the primacy of conscience, and it will not do in light of Die verbum to reply with circular logic. In fact, the teaching is that a person must obey the dictates of conscience. This is a moral imperative.
An action is not sinless simply because the conscience approves it. The conscience can err, and the individual may be held accountable for his fault. The conscience is not a get-out-of-jail-free card.

Ender
 
probably because we’re seeing an attempt to polarize Catholics again. It appears to be the kind of strategy that, despite its having been pointed out over and over, still seems to ‘work’. Back when Pope Benedict was Pope, the strategy was to paint him as being against everything that liberal-minded people held dear. . .to twist and distort his words and actions in every possible way to make it seem that he and any who agreed with those ‘distortions’ --and make no mistake, any person who identified as ‘conservative’ was assumed to hold all these distorted pseudo-conservative ideas and to be hell-bent on forcing them onto 'normal people-- and hey, that worked beautifully. You had conservatives constantly on the defensive when supposedly ‘their’ leader was on their side.

Now that Pope Francis is Pope, the strategy is to paint him as being against everything that conservative-minded people hold dear-- to twist and distort his words and actions in every possible way. However since now many of the issues identified as ‘liberal’ are also those of the mainstream non-religious people, the idea is now to paint those who disagree with the DISTORTIONS which are presented as liberal thinking as being idiots, bigots, supremacists, elitists, etc.

What people don’t seem to realize is that both liberals and conservatives are being USED and targeted in exactly the same way as they were in the previous pontificate, even though different ‘worldviews’ are being presented as being ‘under fire’.

In the first pontificate, the conservative view was seen as being forced onto people, and the ‘minority’ was supposedly attacking the majority.

In the second pontificate, the liberal view is seen as ‘common sense at last’ and trying to ‘move on’ to a ‘real’ Church. The conservatives are no longer ‘powerful’ so their arguments are seen as rants and ravings.

Of course the sheer satanic brilliance is that in both pontificates, the Popes themselves are neither ‘conservative’ nor ‘liberal’ but simply Catholic. There is no difference whatsoever in what Pope Francis and Pope Benedict believe, as Catholics. The only difference, which has nothing to do with ‘conservativism’ or ‘liberalism’, is the way each individual MAN addresses what Christ has called him to do.

But if you can get a whole group of Catholics to believe that one Pope is more ‘Catholic’ than the other; if you can get them fighting amongst themselves trying to rally behind the Pope who ‘got it right’, then they don’t have any time, as Catholics, actually to work TOGETHER and FOLLOW what both Popes are calling upon their flocks to do.

Diabolical,. . .and in the Internet age, so easy.
👍👍👍
 
Admittedly, the Council of Trent did not pronounce any explicit condemnation.
And the Council of Florence-Ferrara which effected the reunion between Eastern Orthodox and Roman Catholics? I don’t see where the Orthodox were required to give up their teaching on divorce as part of the reunion agreement?
 
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