True, he may have been acting out of human respect, and not due to a loss of faith. Either could have been possible.
Did I say John Paul II lost the faith, or did I say that it was possible he lost the faith? Now, did I base that speculation on this act alone? No, there are many other reasons to suspect it.
Now, in orde to lose the faith, all that is required is for a person to deny one article of the faith. Just as one mortal sins drives all supernatural charity (grace) from the soul, so too just one heresy removes all supernatural faith. Therefore if a person adheres to just one heresy he completely loses the faith.
Now, John Paul II repeatedly stated that “the old covenant was never revoked by God”. The Catholic Church teaches (See council of Florence, and more recently Mystici corporis Christi, of Pope Pius XII) that the old covenant was replaced by the new and is null and void.
Keeping in mind that the denial of one teaching of the faith results in a complete loss of faith, please explain how John Paul II statement about the old covenant “never being revoked by God” is not contrary to what the Church formally teaches.
You are trying very hard to show that I said what I did not say: I did not say that kissing the Koran means that John Paul II certainly lost the faith. What I said was, he may have lost the faith, which explains why he has no problem kissing a book that blasphemes the Trinity.
Again, you are trying very hard to claim that I said what I did not say. I did not say that kissing the Koran proves that John Paul II lost the faith (which is what you would have liked for me to say). What I said was, he may have lost the faith which explains why he would kiss the Koran.
Now, please answer my question about John Paul’s teaching of the Old Covenant.