wabrams:
I didn’t ask if you had anything I would accept; I asked what proof you had, so lay your cards out.
“Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.”
Just heading for the strict english translation this is not clear at all.
The rider clause “as with womankin” does not create a general prohibition. A general prohibition would be “Thou shalt not lie with mankind, it is abomination”. The rider clause creates a an instruction to keep homosex and heterosex distinct. This could be directed at activities (if you do this with women, do not do it with men), locations (do not have sex with man and women in the same locations), imagination (do not have sex with a man if you need to pretend he is female to complete the act) and several others.
Is there any additional support for this argument? Perhaps. What is noteworthy about Leviticus is the separation clauses. Leviticus has the specific instructin that the Jews shall not practice what the egyptians and the caiinites did. Thus separation is important. The rules also contain a lot about separation; no cloths of two fibres, no fields of two crops, no buttered beef sandwiches.
So separation of events rather than generic condemnation has some support in the context.
A second thread to this is ritual pagan prostitution, linked to idolotry. The customs of the time was for pagan festivals to feature temple prostitutes (‘quadesh’) of both sexes and for bisexual orgies to occur. It was not uncommon for the Quadesh to dress as women. So this injunction could very easily refer to not carying out common religious activities of the egyptians and the caiinites that lived there before. This certainly has additional support from the story of Sodom, where idolitry was common, and the occurances of the ‘sodomite’ which comes from the word 'quadesh… which means holy ones, is always in connection with ‘weavings’ the form of worship women practiced in honour to Astarte.
I quite prefer this interpretation. All condemnations (including the story of sodom) of homosexuality are actually injunctions against paganism. It’s internally consistent, directly links to practices at the time, is confirmed by links to weavings and the tranvesticism is just a cherry on top. I note, without surprise conservative jewish interpretation forbids men from wearing womens clothing and vis versa.
Additionally, a heterosexual man and a gay man would not be able to complete the sex act with a member of the inappropriate sex except through friction or more significantly through imagining that the sexual partner was a different gender. But with the religious practices of the time with a pagan sexual practices it might be a requirement; “as with a woman” can be interpreted as “remember the gender. No fantasies!”
As a final throw to the mix is a cultural artifact: we should note that eunuchs were considered a third sex, and the is exceptional evidence ‘eunuchs’ were not just the castrated, but any man who could not have sex with women. Alexander the Great worried his mother, who thought he might be a eunuch, until he took a wife, because of his interest in men. A man was not definied by genitals, but by penetrating women. If a man could not do this, then he wasnt male.
The significance of this is that injuctions to males cannot apply to eunuchs. Eunuchs were considered the third sex. Neither male nor female. The exceptional evidence that eunuchs=congenital homosexual puts gay men outside of the rules of Leviticus. The meaning of ‘male’ has changed.
So, for various reasons I do not see that Leviticus condemns homosexuality, or congenital homosexuals. I think is does condemn idolotry and pagan activities, and does condemn straight men enjoying “any port in a storm”, but it does not condemn homosexual activity for gay men.