J
JaneFrances
Guest
But perhaps, if history is any indication, you may need further explanation. . .Surely, you see my dilemma.
Notice, each of the English translations I have provided–no doubt, one could offer more–differs from another. Thus, I am confronted with a problem. I don’t know any of the publishers or any of the editors, translators, scholars, etc. involved in producing these versions of the Bible, so which do I choose?
You have done well to appeal to St. John for direction in testing spirits, but how does one do this pertaining to a translation? The Holy Spirit inspires all Scripture, so how do I know which translation is worthy?
This is precisely why I choose, not being a Greek scholar myself, to turn to a lexicon of the original language for more information.
I understand your hesitance to engage in linguistic analysis especially in a language you do not know. So how does one resolve this issue?
To begin, according to common usage, one would most certainly understand the command “Be perfect” as in instruction indicating an immediate response. This falls into the same category as “Be quiet.” Or according to the English Biblical usage “Be fruitful and muliply.”
Now, as one probes further and considers academic usage, one could make an argument, as you have (here forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=144393&page=3 post #53), that “Be perfect,” in English, is not grammatically perfect. So, while the common usage has one understanding, the English grammar offers another possibility.
So, one is faced with a number of choices. One of these choices, one especially sensible for someone seeking accuracy and full understanding, would certainly be to consider the language derivation of “Be perfect.” This is precisely why I thought you would be interested to know the Greek root.
If you have no interest in exploring the truth into language derivation, I would ask you to please provide evidence that your chosen English translation is the perfect product.
This is exactly what I am saying.What i think you are saying, then, is that the proper understanding of our Lord’s words should be:
“You are to be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect.”
This is not my understanding of the full context of the Scripture.I should next ask, then, does this understanding of our Savior’s words mean the same as this?
“Become perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect.”
Please see my post here forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=144393&page=3 #65.
In it, I wrote:
Thus, as Christ’s injuction surely is meant for all human kind, one would rightly conclude that we are “to be perfect.” This is the general sense in context. How it applies to each individual is a matter of active grace.To use the verb “become,” in the English, requires a future tense and does not allow any other. The verb “be”, or as you have pointed out the infinitive “to be”, is much more hospitable to other senses, without ignoring or limiting the present and future tenses.