S
Socrates4Jesus
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Thoughts, anyone?
I am gratified to see that, in the days I have been out of town, you have conceded to look at the Greek. This is a sign that you really are interested in learning,and not just recalcitrant.Code:As Jane said, it is exactly the same Greek word in both chapters of Hebrews, which is the word *teleioo*. From what i have been told, Greek words take on different meanings depending on the context in which they are used, but i'm not sure if this makes it any clearer.
As you study this word teleios, you will find that it can be understood as “completed”. Perfect in the sense of “finished”. Jesus came to complete a mission, and he perfected (completed) that mission through His suffering. His work is perfect (completed) at the time of His sacrifice. That completed work has been applied to us through baptism (we are saved by His grace, by virtue of His sacrifice).Code:How Jesus, who was perfect, could be perfected is more a mystery to me than how a Catholic who is not perfect can be viewed as such by God.
Jesus saving act (perfect) which has occured once and for all time, has been applied to us. Inasmuch as we are “in Christ” we are a new creation, the old has been put away (sinful nature) and our lives are now hidden with Christ in God.Code:Practically, you and i sin every day, Michael. There are sins of commission and sins of omission. There are not only sins of word and deed, but sins of thought, to boot! How we can be called perfect in Hebrews 10 when we are clearly not perfect is what i am asking.
Remember how Jesus said that he longed for the Spirit to be poured out? “How I am constrained until it is accomplished”. His mission was not completed (perfected) until he returned to heaven to sit at the right hand of the father. Our participation in his mission will not be completed until we are there also!Code:Practically, Jesus never sinned. In every thought, word and deed He always did what is good, righteous, loving and true. He was never guilty of even one sin of commission or omission. How the one who was and is perfect could be referred to as being perfected is even more a mystery.
One has to wonder why this is so important to you…Code:I don't know if i shall find the answer, but i'm not going to stop trying! :)
This is a subtle but important distinction in the “predestination debate”, isn’t it?Well, from God’s point of view (who knows how everyone’s life will turn out) i imagine He knows who, once saved, will remain so and who, once saved, will later walk away.
My objection would be the change of verb tense - “are being made holy” as opposed to "are sanctified (holy).Yes, it is puzzling. I think the key to solving the mystery is to think that the author must mean something different when he writes(A) he has perfected
and when he writes(B) those who are sanctifiedThat is, (A) must not be the same as (B). The same must be true with other translations, such as the NIV, which states:
(a) by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever
and(b) those who are being made holyThat is, (a) cannot be the same as (b). To say (a) is equal to (b) and to also say that Jesus has done (a) but is still in the process of doing (b) is absurd.
So (A) must mean something different from (B) and (a) must mean something different than (b). Does this sound reasonable?
Soc-I think that if the author had written
… by one sacrifice he will in eternity make perfect forever those who are now being made holy.
this conversation would not be happening, because we would have both agreed, long before now, that it agrees with Roman Catholic theology. However, that’s not what he wrote. Instead, he wrote … by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy.
So, i think that “has made perfect forever” must mean something different than “are being made holy”. The question is, how are the two phrases different?
I understand your concern about the NIV. I have heard similar criticisms of the RSV, which is the favorite translation of the Methodists. Perhaps we can compromise and use a Roman Catholic bible? The New American Bible quotes the passage this way:Soc-
That is just one translation - the NIV - which is not exactly known for its stellar scholarship and fidelity to the Greek.
Other translations phrase this passage differently as I have mentioned previously.
I’m off to work, but let me ask this: which do you feel is most faithful to the Greek?I understand your concern about the NIV. I have heard similar criticisms of the RSV, which is the favorite translation of the Methodists. Perhaps we can compromise and use a Roman Catholic bible? The New American Bible quotes the passage this way:
For by one offering he has made perfect forever those who are being consecrated. This translation states that it is “Translated from the original languages with critical use of all the ancient sources.” Furthermore, it states that it is “authorized by the board of trusties of the Confraternity of Christian Doctrine and approved by the Administrative Committee/Board of the National Conference of Catholic Bishops and the United States Catholic Conference.”
Are you willing, as i am, to accept this Bible as having the most accurate translation of the passage, or do you prefer to stick with the Methodist scholars? If you agree to the compromise, we can continue the discussion using the quote from this RC Bible.
Hope this helps! :tiphat:Some may wish to add to this section [on sanctification] one or more passages from Hebrews that speak about our sanctification having been completed in the past. For example, the authors says that by the will of God “we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once and for all” (Hebr. 10:10). The Greek expression is a periphrastic perfect passive participle, hegiasmenoi esmen, which speaks of a continuing present sanctification that results from a completed past action: "We are continually in a state of ‘having been sanctified’ (and we continue to feel the results of that previous act of sanctification).
But in Hebrews, the term “sanctify” (Gk. hagiazo) is related more to the Old Testament background of ceremonial purity or holiness as necessary for access to God’s presence, and therefore “sanctified” in Hebrews means “made holy and righteous in God’s sight and therefore fit to draw near to God in worship.” As such, “sanctified” in Hebrews is roughly equivalent to “justified” in Paul’s vocabulary. This sense of “sanctified” can be see in Heb. 9:13, 10:10, 13:12. These passages speak of a ceremonial kind of purification that allows access to God, and, as such, “sanctification” here applies to the beginning of Christian life. Nevertheless, the focus is more on access to God in worship, while the Pauline emphasis is on justification from the penalty of sin that was due under God’s law.
I think you will also not be able to grasp this if you are black and white in your thinking. The writer is speaking of an event which has occurred, is occurring, and will occur later. God is not bound to time and space like we are, and if you persist in using an “either/or” approach, I don’t think it will be possible to understand it.Yes, it is puzzling. I think the key to solving the mystery is to think that the author must mean something different when he writes(A) he has perfected
and when he writes(B) those who are sanctifiedThat is, (A) must not be the same as (B). The same must be true with other translations, such as the NIV, which states:
(a) by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever
and(b) those who are being made holyThat is, (a) cannot be the same as (b). To say (a) is equal to (b) and to also say that Jesus has done (a) but is still in the process of doing (b) is absurd.
So (A) must mean something different from (B) and (a) must mean something different than (b). Does this sound reasonable?
Correct. To hold the former view is to ignore Scriptures that contradict that view. I would say this is a non-essential doctrine of the historic, Christian faith, however. I believe someone can believe God makes Him do everything and that free will is an illusion, and yet still be loved and accepted by God despite such error. I’ve found that Calvinists and others who hold to Reformed Theology often have a strong confidence in God, which i admire.This is a subtle but important distinction in the “predestination debate”, isn’t it?
Some say God chooses the elect.
Others say God uses His foreknowledge to see who are the elect.
Sounds like you hold to the latter view.
I honestly do not know, RC. (So much to learn, so little time!) I can look up the meaning of individual Greek words and find that helpful, but Greek grammar is more of an enigma to me than the topic we are discussing.I’m off to work, but let me ask this: which do you feel is most faithful to the Greek?
Thank you, Guano. Yes, i’m not trying to be unreasonable. I think looking up the meaning of individual Greek, Latin or Hebrew words helps. My knowledge of Greek grammar is what i do not trust.I am gratified to see that, in the days I have been out of town, you have conceded to look at the Greek. This is a sign that you really are interested in learning,and not just recalcitrant. …
I believe that when Greek and Hebrew writers use the word heart, they mean mind. I think you might agree, for the the organ that circulates blood through my body and yours does not have conscious thought. That we should use the minds that God gave us is evident from Scripture. For example, God says:… As you study this word teleios, you will find that it can be understood as “completed”. Perfect in the sense of “finished”. Jesus came to complete a mission, and he perfected (completed) that mission through His suffering. His work is perfect (completed) at the time of His sacrifice. That completed work has been applied to us through baptism (we are saved by His grace, by virtue of His sacrifice).
You are right that this is a mystery, and that is why I have consistently expressed reservation about your method. I am not at all sure that one can enter a mystery through a socratic method. One enters the mystery through the heart, not the head.
…One has to wonder why this is so important to you.
Yes, Guano, this idea is extremely helpful. Thank you!… Remember how Jesus said that he longed for the Spirit to be poured out? “How I am constrained until it is accomplished”. His mission was not completed (perfected) until he returned to heaven to sit at the right hand of the father. Our participation in his mission will not be completed until we are there also! …
Yes, this might help, RC. It is certainly an idea worth exploring.From Wayne Grudem’s Systematic Theology, p. 748, FN 3:
But in Hebrews, the term “sanctify” (Gk. hagiazo) is related more to the Old Testament background of ceremonial purity or holiness as necessary for access to God’s presence, and therefore “sanctified” in Hebrews means “made holy and righteous in God’s sight and therefore fit to draw near to God in worship.” As such, “sanctified” in Hebrews is roughly equivalent to “justified” in Paul’s vocabulary. Hope this helps! :tiphat:
I believe that when the word “heart” is referred to it includes a center within us that is separate from reason. Yes, they work together,but it is it’s own avenue to the divine, quite apart from reason. For example, let us look at this scripture:when Greek and Hebrew writers use the word heart, they mean mind. I think you might agree, for the the organ that circulates blood through my body and yours does not have conscious thought.
I think it is great you are using your mind (reasoning ability). It is only part of the equation, though. Today we read about Peter receiving direction from the Lord in a trance. Peter was confused, because the instruction he received from the Lord defied his reason. It went against everything he had been taught and practiced all his life. The same was true for Nicodemus. Jesus instruction defied reason. Look also at Jn. 6. The people were not only confused, but scandalized. Some things can only be understood by the heart. Others we cannot understand at all, and just must accept in obedience.That we should use the minds that God gave us is evident from Scripture. For example, God says:
“Come now, let us reason together,” says the LORD. “Though your sins are like scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they are red as crimson, they shall be like wool.”(Isaiah 1:18)
This is true, of course, but there are also truths in the scripture that can be understood best with the heart. One should try to apprehend the truths on all the levels.and Jesus teaches that the most important commandment is to
" ‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’"(Matthew 22:37)Now, i admit that there are some things about God i will never comprehend until i see Jesus face-to-face. However, there is much i can at least apprehend by understanding what Scripture says. That is, i can know what the truth is based on what the authors of the Bible write, without knowing how it can be true.
Each person must approach God in way that best suits their constitution. Personally, I find it very frustrating, but if it works for you then I commend you.So, my goal in using the Socratic method is to love the Lord my God with all my mind by approaching him in prayer, and approaching those to whom He has given wisdom, so that we might reason together. This is why this discussion is important to me.
I would not say better, just different. Both of them are important and valuable.What you seem to be saying, Guano, is that there is a better way to know the truth than to use your mind and reason and rational thought. Can you explain what that better way is?
Guano:Yes, Guano, this idea is extremely helpful. Thank you!
What you are saying is that the word perfect means complete, or finished in this passage
During the days of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. Although he was a son, he learned obedience from what he suffered and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.(Hebrews 5:7-10)Lets try applying this meaning to Hebrews 10
Every priest stands daily at his ministry, offering frequently those same sacrifices that can never take away sins. But this one [Jesus] offered one sacrifice for sins, and took his seat forever at the right hand of God; now he waits until his enemies are made his footstool. For by one offering he has made perfect forever those who are being consecrated.(Hebrews 10:11-14)so that verse 14 should be understood to say
For by one offering he **has made complete **forever those who are being consecrated.Tell us, Guano, in what way are you now (at this moment) complete?
To my understanding, the work that Jesus did on the cross is “perfected” (completed). Through baptism, I have been joined into His death, burial, and resurrection. These are perfected (completed) works that have been accomplished in me by grace, through faith. As a result, I am “positionally perfect” to the extent that I am in Christ (in a state of grace). This means that I am seated with Him in the heavenly places. You can read more about the perfected work of salvation on a thread called “works salvation”. There are two threads, one and two because it got too long. It has many, many references to the meaning of the completed parts of the salvation process.Tell us, Guano, in what way are you now (at this moment) complete?
What does your heart tell you is the answer this question?