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Non_Serviam
Guest
I’m tight on time before heading out for the weekend, but guanophore did include a bit of possible proof in with his other comments, so I’m going to make a few minutes to respond before I leave.
What this means is that the current texts of the Liturgy don’t necessarily reflect its original form. Without an early copy of it or references from early writers, it offer some proof, more than had been advanced before this, but the preponderance of evidence still supports the thesis I put forth.
Given at least one distinction, it is indeed possible to point to Jesus or Mary with no false dichotomy at all. So hopefully this is the last we’ll see of that argument. There are actually several differences between Jesus and dead saints and these form the context for Leeann’s question.

The OP asked a question about the Apostles. I put forward a thesis with proof supporting that thesis. Catholics have criticized the question, begged the question with special pleading, made appeals to authority, ad hominem arguments and offered a number of red herrings in an attempt to cover up the lack of verifiable evidence for their assertion about the Apostles-an assertion not made by other Catholic authorities, who accept the doctrine of communion of saints but don’t argue that it began with the Apostles.
Baptism, Real Presence, Inspiration of Scripture, the Divinity of Christ can all be traced back to the Apostles through sources both internal and external to Scripture. Baptism of Blood, Transubstantiation, the Canon and the Chalcedonian formula can’t be traced back to the Apostles and yet Catholics accept them all based on development of doctrine.
Why you insist on a self-imposed infallibility in this instance is beyond me-you assert something that the Catechism doesn’t-that the Apostles prayed this way. I’m hoping that continuing the discussion will make it clearer why “because the Church says so” isn’t sufficient for may non-Catholics and that attempting to show proof where this is little or none, doesn’t buttress your position.
With that, I wish everyone a great weekend and I hope to see you fresh and full of answers next week.
- The Liturgy of St. James does indeed contain references to asking the dead for prayers. It also is found only in copies made hundreds of years after St. James lived.
What this means is that the current texts of the Liturgy don’t necessarily reflect its original form. Without an early copy of it or references from early writers, it offer some proof, more than had been advanced before this, but the preponderance of evidence still supports the thesis I put forth.
- The unity of Mary, the dead saints and Jesus-while there are clear references in Scripture to the church being the Body of Christ, I am also quite certain that there are one or more senses in which you still believe Mary and the Saints to possess distinct identities from Jesus.
Given at least one distinction, it is indeed possible to point to Jesus or Mary with no false dichotomy at all. So hopefully this is the last we’ll see of that argument. There are actually several differences between Jesus and dead saints and these form the context for Leeann’s question.
- The whole question of “faith”, “proof” and the “rightness” of the Catholic church: I can’t say I’m impressed with how the Catholic faith is sometimes presented here.
The OP asked a question about the Apostles. I put forward a thesis with proof supporting that thesis. Catholics have criticized the question, begged the question with special pleading, made appeals to authority, ad hominem arguments and offered a number of red herrings in an attempt to cover up the lack of verifiable evidence for their assertion about the Apostles-an assertion not made by other Catholic authorities, who accept the doctrine of communion of saints but don’t argue that it began with the Apostles.
Baptism, Real Presence, Inspiration of Scripture, the Divinity of Christ can all be traced back to the Apostles through sources both internal and external to Scripture. Baptism of Blood, Transubstantiation, the Canon and the Chalcedonian formula can’t be traced back to the Apostles and yet Catholics accept them all based on development of doctrine.
Why you insist on a self-imposed infallibility in this instance is beyond me-you assert something that the Catechism doesn’t-that the Apostles prayed this way. I’m hoping that continuing the discussion will make it clearer why “because the Church says so” isn’t sufficient for may non-Catholics and that attempting to show proof where this is little or none, doesn’t buttress your position.
With that, I wish everyone a great weekend and I hope to see you fresh and full of answers next week.