ProdigalSon1,
Here is a personal perspective on your question above:
Any leader who did not directly acknowledge that the apostle John was the leader of the church on earth after the deaths of Peter, James, and Andrew, had lost the authority of the priesthood because the authority is given by God only if used in righteousness, and John held the keys on the earth, under the direction and authority of Jesus Christ who had ordained him.
Certainly, you can see the ‘vagueness’ of your personal perspective. First though, why is an acknowlegement of the Apostle John required? Specifically, where does it say, John had possession of the keys or that John was the leader of the Church? Where does that belief originate? Secondly, does that include early Church fathers who acknowleged the writings of St. John, or is this required to be specifically acknowledging John, himself?
You are the one claiming a priesthood was lost and that some of the early Church fathers were affected because they, themselves, had lost their authority. Please be specific and provide a few examples, names, of early Church who were without the priesthood.
Any leader who felt the need to assert their “authority” based on “who they knew” or “who had taught them” had lost their authority, because such an assertion is totally outside of the order of that authority. It is not “who you know” or “who taught you” or “who baptized you”, but “is your authority directly from God through receiving the direct and specific guidance of the Holy Spirit in how you act within your calling.”
So you would be in a position to read the writings and compare with the above “standards” for evaluating.
Peace to you and all.
I cannot see your point of one asserting themself, or their authority, as a cause for them to have lost their authority. In the face of heresies and false teachings, and the Bible gives us lots of examples of such things, it seems reasonable for one to have to be in such a position of asserting themself. In fact, using your logic, it would almost seem you are saying Peter and Paul had lost their authority and need I remind you that Christ, Himself, asserted His authority. Aren’t we all supposed to be ‘Christlike’, according to our positions in His Church and in life?
**Act 15:7 And when there had been much disputing, Peter, rising up, said to them: Men, brethren, you know that in former days God made choice among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.
1Co 1:16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanus. Besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.
Act 20:20 How I have kept back nothing that was profitable to you, but have preached it to you, and taught you publicly, and from house to house,
1Co 9:27 But I chastise my body and bring it into subjection: lest perhaps, when I have preached to others, I myself should become a castaway.
1Co 15:2 By which also you are saved, if you hold fast after what manner I preached unto you, unless you have believed in vain.**
There are many more examples of Paul referring to his preaching/teaching, even to the extent of speaking of heresies, dissensions and divisions, which is an assertion of his authority.
Now returning to your ‘requirement’ of the acknowledgement of John. Peter, James, nor Jude acknowledged John in their writings of the New Testament. Paul only refers to John once and then to seemingly validate his authority, or assert himself.
Gal 2:9 And when they had known the grace that was given to me, James and Cephas and John, who seemed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship: that we should go unto the Gentiles, and they unto the circumcision:
Now, I’ve asked some specific questions, but I have a couple more that come to mind through your response.
Do Mormons believe John died? If not, please provide where the believe is listed to say he did not.
Do Mormons believe the Bible to be the inspired word of God, without error?