S
setter
Guest
I recently had a discussion with a Priest who asserted that it is morally licit to use the Pill to “regulate” irregular menstrual cycle in service of a couple’s efforts to utilize “natural” family planning methods. I contested that suppression of the menstrual cycle does not constitute “regulation” in service of NFP. I also questioned the medical necessity of an irregular menstrual cycle as a medical condition that requires the Pill to treat and how the principle of double effect could apply. He rather skirted the issue that the intent was in service of greater latitude for the marital embrace and limiting unexpected pregnancy and the abortifacient effect of the Pill. I would appreciate any citations to figure out if such counsel is morally licit.