Priest to me today: The Lutherans have valid eucharist

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I was absolutely shocked. Our priest, who is at least into his 60s, if not 70s, told me in a meeting with him that the Anglicans and Lutherans both have valid holy orders and a valid Eucharist.

“They may not know they have it” - “They may not want to call it transubstantiation…”

Anyone care to comment on this? Is this true to Catholic doctrine?
You had to know this was coming:

“(T)he issue of the Eucharist cannot be narrowed to the problem of validity. Even a theology oriented to the concept of succession . . . need not in any way deny the salvation granting presence of the Lord in the Lutheran Lord’s Supper.”

jsonline.com/news/milwaukee/29260024.html

This is probably what your priest was referring to.
 
If the Catholic Church has to “tweak” them in order to use them, even the new English translation, that alone should tell you that the only valid rites are the ones that they have explicitly approved and each translation of it has to be approved. Does that make sense? Otherwise any ex-priest can recite any translation of 1 Corinthians 11 and make a claim his “Mass” or Eucharist was valid. (I’m equating Mass and Eucharist here, though I’m sure there are theologicans who wouldn’t agree.)
No, that doesn’t follow. One can think a particular rite is not as explicit as it ought to be, or needs to be changed somewhat for some other reason, without it invalidating the form. There are fairly specific criteria I believe for what makes an invalid form. There are rites that have been used in and recognized by the Catholic Church that would be tweaked if they wanted to use them today as well, but the CC doesn’t think they were invalid.
 
Masses are only Valid if in proper Form and Substance. The Episcopal Rite has neither, nor are the many variants of ‘episcopal’ valid anymore, because operate against Basic Christian Traditions, the Commandments, and/or Bible teaching. 'Gay ‘Married’ episcopal bishop lives in violation of the Commandments and the Bible, much less Christian Tradition. 😊
I have no disagreement with any part of your post except for the “nor are the many variants of ‘episcopal’ valid anymore” clause.

If an Episcopal priest (former Roman Catholic priest) validly ordained by a Roman Catholic bishop says “This is my body” over valid altar bread with the intent to consecrate the Eucharist, I can see no reason why it does not happen. There is both matter and form present.
 
There are rites that have been used in and recognized by the Catholic Church that would be tweaked if they wanted to use them today as well, but the CC doesn’t think they were invalid.
Quo Primum invalidated all new rites created after 1370 A.D. And Trent prohibited new rites being created. On that basis, it would appear that all Lutheran and Anglican Rites (with the possible exception of the Sarum Rite), including the Traditional Mass in the vernacular, are invalid. However, I don’t know the whole story behind what the Church is allowing the new Ordinariate to say but I can’t see them applying a different standard than what they are approving in the new English translation of the OF. Maybe they’re only temporarily allowing it for whatever reasons, but if they have to tweak anything, then the only thing I can conclude is that there is a problem with the Anglican Rite or Lutheran Rite per se, ecumenism notwithstanding. I guess it all boils down to the intent as the Church requires for validation.
 
I have no disagreement with any part of your post except for the “nor are the many variants of ‘episcopal’ valid anymore” clause.

If an Episcopal priest (former Roman Catholic priest) validly ordained by a Roman Catholic bishop says “This is my body” over valid altar bread with the intent to consecrate the Eucharist, I can see no reason why it does not happen. There is both matter and form present.
But, what about intent? Let’s look at the case of one Alberto Cutie. He left the Church, joined the Episcopalian Church and subsequently was “ordained” a priest. As such, he now conducts their services. However, in order for Mass to be valid, Cutie would have to intend to consecrate as the Church intends, not as the Episcopalian ecclesial community intends.
 
You are correct benedictgal. Proper intent is one of the requirements for a VALID sacrament. It cannot be assumed that one who leaves the Catholic Faith for another would have the same intention as the Church. In fact, it would be wise to assume that his intent is no longer the Church’s intent, otherwise, why would he leave?! That is the only safe assumption we can make.

[edited]
 
Quo Primum invalidated all new rites created after 1370 A.D. And Trent prohibited new rites being created. On that basis, it would appear that all Lutheran and Anglican Rites (with the possible exception of the Sarum Rite), including the Traditional Mass in the vernacular, are invalid. However, I don’t know the whole story behind what the Church is allowing the new Ordinariate to say but I can’t see them applying a different standard than what they are approving in the new English translation of the OF. Maybe they’re only temporarily allowing it for whatever reasons, but if they have to tweak anything, then the only thing I can conclude is that there is a problem with the Anglican Rite or Lutheran Rite per se, ecumenism notwithstanding. I guess it all boils down to the intent as the Church requires for validation.
On the face of it this seems a problem, given that the Catholic Church affirms the NO Mass, which is much more of a break in liturgical tradition than the traditional Anglican liturgy. I realize that it is not considered a different rite, but then the Anglican and Lutheran liturgies would not be a new rite by that meaning either. It doesn’t seem applicable at all.
But, what about intent? Let’s look at the case of one Alberto Cutie. He left the Church, joined the Episcopalian Church and subsequently was “ordained” a priest. As such, he now conducts their services. However, in order for Mass to be valid, Cutie would have to intend to consecrate as the Church intends, not as the Episcopalian ecclesial community intends.
The Church is the Church community. The Anglican priests consider themselves to be part of the One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church, just as Catholics do. As far as intent goes, that is not at issue, and AC doesn’t say that it is.

If so, then any broken away ecclesiastical community would have invalid Eucharists on that basis, and that isn’t what the CC teaches.
 
On the face of it this seems a problem, given that the Catholic Church affirms the NO Mass, which is much more of a break in liturgical tradition than the traditional Anglican liturgy. I realize that it is not considered a different rite, but then the Anglican and Lutheran liturgies would not be a new rite by that meaning either. It doesn’t seem applicable at all.

The Church is the Church community. The Anglican priests consider themselves to be part of the One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church, just as Catholics do. As far as intent goes, that is not at issue, and AC doesn’t say that it is.

If so, then any broken away ecclesiastical community would have invalid Eucharists on that basis, and that isn’t what the CC teaches.
However, the Anglican eccleisal community does not have valid orders, as has already been established by Pope Leo XIII. Furthermore, in order for the Holy Eucharist to be valid, the Catholic priest must have the intent to do as the Church commands. Thus, intent is one of the four marks of validity for the Church.
 
But, what about intent? Let’s look at the case of one Alberto Cutie. He left the Church, joined the Episcopalian Church and subsequently was “ordained” a priest. As such, he now conducts their services. However, in order for Mass to be valid, Cutie would have to intend to consecrate as the Church intends, not as the Episcopalian ecclesial community intends.
I don’t see intent as an issue since the intent is clearly to consecrate the Eucharist.
Most Catholic priests who joined the Episcopals did so for disciplinary reasons (e.g. to get married) not for theological reasons.
 
I don’t see intent as an issue since the intent is clearly to consecrate the Eucharist.
Most Catholic priests who joined the Episcopals did so for disciplinary reasons (e.g. to get married) not for theological reasons.
However, you cannot have it both ways. You either intend to consecrate the Eucharist as the Church intends, or you don’t.

I apologize for this analogy, but, it’s the closet one I can conjure up. It would be akin to Tony Romo leavnig the Cowboys, going to the NY Giants and then intending to carry out Dallas Cowboys’ Coach Jason Garrett’s plays for Dallas. You play for the team you of which you are a member; you don’t play for the team you just left.
 
Episcopals in my acquaintance intend to consecrate the Eucharist in the same manner as do we.
If their intent is the same, and the matter and form are there, where is the problem?🤷
We acknowledge that the heretics of the 16th century e.g. Luther, Cranmer etc. could confect the Eucharist even though they “switched teams”🙂 as long as the matter and form were there.
 
Episcopals in my acquaintance intend to consecrate the Eucharist in the same manner as do we.
If their intent is the same, and the matter and form are there, where is the problem?🤷
We acknowledge that the heretics of the 16th century e.g. Luther, Cranmer etc. could confect the Eucharist even though they “switched teams”🙂 as long as the matter and form were there.
I guess we’re presuming the intent isn’t the same if you decide to break away completely from the very Church which supplies that validity. (This is to be distinguished from a schism.)
 
I was absolutely shocked. Our priest, who is at least into his 60s, if not 70s, told me in a meeting with him that the Anglicans and Lutherans both have valid holy orders and a valid Eucharist.

“They may not know they have it” - “They may not want to call it transubstantiation…”

Anyone care to comment on this? Is this true to Catholic doctrine?
No it is not true to Catholic Doctrine, That priest needs to learn the catholic faith better
 
However, the Anglican eccleisal community does not have valid orders, as has already been established by Pope Leo XIII. Furthermore, in order for the Holy Eucharist to be valid, the Catholic priest must have the intent to do as the Church commands. Thus, intent is one of the four marks of validity for the Church.
Since we are discussing why or why not the CC says the Anglicans have invalid orders, pointing out that a Pope declared them invalid is rather useless. Unless you think he did it for no reason. It is certainly not likely to convince someone who doesn’t already assume his authority on the matter is legitimate.

I agree that the CC says intent is a requirement for validity - but you haven’t argued successfully that it isn’t there. Your idea about teams doesn’t understand the argument, and you haven’t answered any of the points to that end.
I guess we’re presuming the intent isn’t the same if you decide to break away completely from the very Church which supplies that validity. (This is to be distinguished from a schism.)
Anglican priests don’t understand themselves to have broken away from the Church. Most would say they are in schism, but part of the same universal Church. You are assuming that everyone agrees with Rome’s understanding of itself - that it is the only instantiation of the universal, catholic, apostolic church. But that isn’t so - a number of bodies consider themselves to be part of that same Church.

If a person actually thought they were breaking away from the True Church, and belonging to something completely different, that would probably suggest that they were not intending to “do what the Church had always done”. But I think it would be difficult to find any Christian group that believes that about itself. They all believe themselves to be part of the True Church founded by Christ.

It would be pretty difficult to be a Christian at all with another understanding - though I would never say never.
 
However, you cannot have it both ways. You either intend to consecrate the Eucharist as the Church intends, or you don’t.
This was my point earlier. How can a priest who leaves the Church for another community, abandon his bishop and adopt a theology contrary to the True Faith, yet still intend to do what the Church intends? What he personally believes or intends is of no consequence. If sspx priests cannot validly absolve sins and witness a marriage without the faculties of the local bishop, then how can an apostate priest consecrate the Eucharist?
 
Form and matter are only one third of the formula. The other two are A) valid minister and B) proper intent.

Leo XIII already declared Anglican orders as null and void, the issue is settled. There are no other valid orders, period. Lutheran ministers are not priests in the first place and do not believe in the sacrificail nature of the Mass anyway. A Lutheran Mass is nothing more than individuals coming together to pray. God does not recognize them as a “church”.

Proper intent is also required as many others have stated.

As for the many comments concerning the “Old” Catholic Church, please do not confuse them with “Traditional” Catholics. The Old Catholic Church is a heretical sect that was born in Holland after Vatican I. They reject the infallible nature of the Pope when teaching matters of Faith and Morals. Therefore they are in schism.
Regarding the Old Catholic Church, the above is factually false. The Old Roman Catholic, in the Netherlands, went into schism (not heresy) in 1726. The Old Catholic Church originated in Germany and Switzerland after Vatican I, and they do not accept papal infallibility as a dogma. You are confusing the two groups, who are in communion with one another, but are not the same thing.
 
This was my point earlier. How can a priest who leaves the Church for another community, abandon his bishop and adopt a theology contrary to the True Faith, yet still intend to do what the Church intends? What he personally believes or intends is of no consequence. If sspx priests cannot validly absolve sins and witness a marriage without the faculties of the local bishop, then how can an apostate priest consecrate the Eucharist?
Actually, with the issue of intent, what the person believes he is doing is precisely the point. That is what intent means. It is very similar to the concept of intent in secular law.
 
Regarding the Old Catholic Church, the above is factually false. The Old Roman Catholic, in the Netherlands, went into schism (not heresy) in 1726. The Old Catholic Church originated in Germany and Switzerland after Vatican I, and they do not accept papal infallibility as a dogma. You are confusing the two groups, who are in communion with one another, but are not the same thing.
What is interesting to me is that many Old Catholics are far more liberal theologically than Anglicans, but the CC accepts their orders. It makes it a bit hard to take some of the talk about how separating oneself from the “true body” means the Eucharist is invalid seriously.
 
Actually, with the issue of intent, what the person believes he is doing is precisely the point. That is what intent means. It is very similar to the concept of intent in secular law.
I would disagree. For a more true-to-source “definition” of the word, I cite what the Council of Florence (1431-1445) taught.
“All these sacraments are made up of three elements: namely, things as the matter, words as the form, and the person of the minister who confers the sacrament with the intention of doing what the church does. If any of these is lacking, the sacrament is not effected.”
Your argument seems to be that he can intend to confect regardless of what the church does or says. Not quite the same thing.
 
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