So you beleive an objective moral law exists?
Here are the definitions I use. If yours are different, there is no reason to continue.
Objective = existing apart from the subjective opinion of individuals. Yes, of course.
Absolute = unchanging across all times and cultures. No, absolutely not.
Morality = the set of written and unwritten rules in a specific society at a specific time, which describe the socially accepted human behavior.
Some of these rules persist across many societies and many times. Decency, loving, caring, etc… are examples of them.
Such questions are very helpful. If you believe an objective moral law exists -seperate from God- which gives the standard for the qualities you listed, and that this standard can help us determine whether or not such a God could truly be said to be a loving, decent, kind, helpful, and just, then I want to know about it. Where can I find it? How did you come across it?
Answered above.
What if God told you that suffering was the optimal way to ensure perfect loving humans? What if I told you that fire purifies gold, or the compressing coal would make a diamond? Are these imperfect means of affecting such changes? Is there a more perfect means of purifying gold or creating diamonds?
That is exactly what I was talking about before. If God could “prove” to me (not simply “tell” me) that the amount of pain, suffering and misery is the optimal way, then I would accept it. After all a
proof is something that cannot be denied. Of course God would have an awful hard time to
prove that even one less Jew being sent to gas chamber would have “spoiled” some “greater good”. Or that one extra rain (which would have prevented famine) would have prevented some other “greater good” to materialize. But he is welcome to try.
Could it be you’re mistaken when you view suffering to be intrinsically evil?
Since I never said that suffering is intrinsically evil, you are barking up the wrong tree. However I am saying that “unnecessary or gratuitous suffering” IS intrinsically evil.
Could you provide the part of the catechim which states this. When I looked through the catechims under
atheism I was unable to find the definition you provided.
Not from the top of my head. But, rest assured, it is there. It was quoted to me. A quick search led to Veritatis Splendor:
Veritatis Splendor said:
“With the whole tradition of the Church, we call mortal sin the act by which man freely and consciously rejects God, his law, the covenant of love that God offers, preferring to turn in on himself or to some created and finite reality, something contrary to the divine will (conversto ad creaturam). This can occur in a direct and formal way, in the sins of idolatry, apostasy and atheism; or in an equivalent way, as in every act of disobedience to God’s commandments in a grave matter”
In the section you looked you could find at the end:
2140 Since it rejects or denies the existence of God, atheism is a sin against the first commandment.