J
JimG
Guest
This is interesting, in that you have repeatedly stated that it is the woman who has the right of consent.I completely understand what you’re saying and where you’re coming from. I do. But currently, the law states that the woman has medical consent, therefore she chooses. She has the medical consent for herself and her unborn.
With abortion, of course, consent means permission for the destruction of the child in utero.
But I’m just wondering at what point this ‘right of consent’ ends, or should end. Can it validly be given when the child is about to be, but is not yet, born? Can the child be held from exiting the womb in order to be killed first? It is after all, still in the womb. Even after birth, the child is still temporarily attached to the woman by the umbilical cord. Does she still have a right to consent to its destruction at that point? Or, since the child will be no less dependent in the first few months after birth, should her ability to consent to its termination not be extended to cover those first months ex-utero, as Professor Peter Singer suggests?
At what point, in order words, is the child safe from another’s legal ability to consent to its destruction?