T
The_GreyPilgrim
Guest
The scientologists also claim that they received their beliefs by revelation. So is their belief system as valid as yours?Grey Pilgrim,
Remember that the Book of Mormon testifies of prophets who knew things by revelation. God of course knew what name Jesus Christ would have, and so did the Holy Ghost. They could reveal that knowledge to a prophet, and did so including by means of an angel who spoke to a prophet named King Benjamin. He testified in 124 BC:
“…great shall be his anguish for the wickedness and the abominations of his people. And he shall be called Jesus Christ, the Son of God, the Father of heaven and earth, the Creator of all things from the beginning; and his mother shall be called Mary.” (Mosiah 3:8)
As far as the name. God the Father gave His Son the name “Yeshua”, in Hebrew it means “God saves.” In Greek and Latin it is translated to Iesus, English Jesus. “Christos” is a surname that early Christians added on and is the Greek term translated from the Hebrew word “messiah” meaning “anointed.”
Again, these were Hebrews from Judea who left Judea prior to the Hellenization of their lands. The Greek word “Christos”-from which we derive the word “Christ”-would have no meaning to them. There is no way this prophet could know the Greek language. And it would make no sense for God in his wisdom to send an angel to teach this “prophet” a language that he didn’t know and then deliver the prophecy. The angel would have spoken to him in Hebrew, the language that he knew.
Also your belief of Jesus being God the Father is heretical. God does not exist in modes. Jesus and the Father and the Holy Spirit are separate persons, not the same person.
Again, the is no way Nephi could know Greek. The angel would have spoken to him in Hebrew.The same goes for the word “Apostles”, revealed to Nephi in 1 Nephi. Nephi also saw that the Bible would go forth throughout the world to testify of Christ, and that John would have a special prophecy to write.
This begs the question.The language of this ancient people would have become totally changed by the 1500’s when the Europeans came to America.
This also begs the question.The Nephites were all killed by 421 AD, many of the Lamanites were killed and those few who were left were a nomadic people, deteriorating because of their unbelief and because at that point they had no written records and thus no consistent source to keep their language the same.
The Israelites were enslaved in Egypt for 400 years and managed to still speak the same language despite the fact that they had no written records. It’s called oral tradition. If the Israelites could keep their oral traditions alive long enough to reach freedom and peace so that they could be written down what made these Israelites any different?
Or one could surmise that maybe they didn’t even exist and thats why there’s no record.
The first sentence begs the question.People constantly on the run and constantly at war would not stop to write any history down. It only takes a few centuries for language to change dramatically. Also, these people were assimilated by other cultures around them over time, with different languages of course.
The second sentence is debatable. In the instance of the Hebrew language, which was considered a sacred language by all Jews, I highly doubt would just be “forgotten”.
There are and were always scribes present to write down the events of history, especially during times of conflict, today we call them journalists. Regardless there would still be some trace of them somewhere in the historical record, there’s not.
The Israelites were taken over and assimilated by Babylon, Assyria, Persia, Greece, Hellenized Syria, Egypt, and Rome within the last 700 years b.c.; yet they still managed to mantain their own cultural identity and language while being almost under constant seige and being exiled. And during their exile still many writings of their history and prophecies were made and saved. How do you explain this?
You can explain it away all you want, the lack of archeological and anthropological evidence that these Hebrews came here cannot. No use of Hebrew, no images of the Temple, or of the Torah, or of the Tablets that contained the Ten Commandments. But out of an attic in New York comes these “revelations” of these plates that conveniently speak of a “New Testament” which is really a fanciful story with old heresies mixed in?
The constant quoting, even wrenching out of context, of numerous scripture passages verbatum which were suppose to be of “revelation” before they were even written by Paul or the other inspired writers of the NT show me that the BOM is nothing more than a fanciful story written with the albeit limited advantage of hindsight by Mr. Smith. It is a farce with no historical context to back it up.