D
dzheremi
Guest
Forgive me for being a rush so that I cannot find the reference right now, but last night I came across a website Q & A on Orthodoxy and its relationship with Catholicism, and one of the points on which Orthodoxy apparently differed with Catholicism is that (it alleged) Catholicism views doctrine as “progressive”, whereas Orthodoxy does not. This site was written from an Orthodox perspective, so it went on to say that this distinguishes the heretical Catholic Church from the pure, whole Orthodox Church (it must be pure because they haven’t added any of those controversial “inventions” that Catholics have).
So…is this “progressive revelation” model an accurate charge against Catholicism, and if it is, is it not at the root of what the Orthodox call our “inventions” (aka everything they don’t agree with us on doctrinally: IC, Papal Infallibility, etc)? How is progressive revelation qualitatively different than just making it up as we go along?
Please, as to that last question: I am a proud Catholic, I had just never heard this particular charge before, and it is troubling me. I am not saying that anything is being made up, only that I could see how it might look that way to an Orthodox Christian.
What is a proper Catholic response to this point?
Thanks!
So…is this “progressive revelation” model an accurate charge against Catholicism, and if it is, is it not at the root of what the Orthodox call our “inventions” (aka everything they don’t agree with us on doctrinally: IC, Papal Infallibility, etc)? How is progressive revelation qualitatively different than just making it up as we go along?
Please, as to that last question: I am a proud Catholic, I had just never heard this particular charge before, and it is troubling me. I am not saying that anything is being made up, only that I could see how it might look that way to an Orthodox Christian.
What is a proper Catholic response to this point?
Thanks!