Protestant belief in Sola Scriptura

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Forgetting the 50 times Jesus used Sola Scriptura, the 22 times He specifically, by name, refers to “the Scriptures” (400-1500 years before The Catholic Church told Him what the Scriptures are), just ignoring that, when did He reference The Catholic Church as normative instead?
The use of scripture as normative does not equate to SS. Jesus is the Authority. Scripture cannot wield authority.

The Church is not authorative “instead” of scripture. It is the authority of the Church that produced the Bible.
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Where is this Scriptural support for The Catholic Church as the embraced norma normans?
“The HS will lead you into all Truth”.
 
The use of scripture as normative does not equate to SS.
What? Using Scripture as the norm IS Sola Scriptura.

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It is the authority of the Church that produced the Bible
Funny, no one told Moses or Jesus that! Jesus referred to Scripture - specifically by that very term - 22 times before even The Catholic Church itself claims that it even came into existence! And, funny, The Catholic Church doesn’t agree with you, either. It teaches that GOD produced the Scriptures.
“The HS will lead you into all Truth”.
EXACTLY! It doesn’t say, “the Holy Spirit will lead The Catholic Church exclusively into all truth and it and it alone will perpetually and infallibly follow that lead and neither God nor man is to regard it and it alone as accountable.”

Your quote makes the point: God never promised The Catholic Church anything.
And God being an inerrant leader has NOTHING to do with anything or anyone being an INFALLIBLE follower. You seem to be confusing the Teacher with the students, the Leader with the followers, and (perhaps forgetting about Genesis Chapter 3) seem to be forgetting that even under PERFECT conditions, with PERFECT teaching and leading, people are neither perfect students or followers - and are NOT regarded as unaccountable.

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We did not say that Apostolic succession is a GUARANTEE of teaching infallibly!
Since the bishops and teachers of The Oriental Orthodox Churches and The Eastern Orthodox Churches have valid Apostolic Succession according to The Catholic Church, and since those Churches are WRONG according to The Catholic Church, therefore Apostolic Succession does not insure correctness, as was the point.

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Since the bishops and teachers of The Oriental Orthodox Churches and The Eastern Orthodox Churches have valid Apostolic Succession according to The Catholic Church, and since those Churches are WRONG according to The Catholic Church, therefore Apostolic Succession does not insure correctness, as was the point.
Agreed. Now read Guanophore’s posts!
 
Jesus refered to Scripture - specifically by that term, 22 times: before even The Catholic Church itself claims (with zero substantiation) to have come into existence; so clearly Jesus doesn’t agree that The Catholic Church is the source of Scripture. The Israelities at Mount Sinai didn’t agree with you, either.
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You are mixing up your subjects again, Josiah. The Church produced the Bible. The NT was written by, for, and about Catholics. In 382 AD, the Catholic Church bound 27 books creating the Bible.

Moot.

This thread is not about Sola Biblica (no such praxis exists), it’s about Sola Scriptura.

Actually, Concordia Publishing House bound my Bible together, not The Catholic Church. But this thread isn’t about our individual tomes, it’s about accountability and what is the most sound norma normans for the evaluations of the doctrinal positions among us.

You are confusing your denomination’s official acknowledgement of what is Scripture that it made at Trent with the embrace of Scripture as such. Apples and oranges. It would seem that since Jesus specifically referred to Scripture (by that term) some 22 times and used such normatively some 50 times - all before The Catholic Church even itself claims that it came into existence, then OBVIOUSLY and UNDENIABLY, The Catholic Church had nothing to do with what is and is not Scripture (unless you wish to argue that The Catholic Church went back in time and told Jesus which is and is not Scripture; you’d also need to prove that The Catholic Church told the Israelities in 1400 BC that The Ten Commandments were Scripture).
What is it about Jesus saying “I will build my Church” that you find to lack substantiation?
He didn’t. He said “I will build my church.”

You might be noticing that Jesus never promised The Catholic Church anything. He never authorized it for anything. He never so much as even MENTIONED it - entirely in passing about nothing at all.
When did The Catholic Church loose this humility and ability to learn? The willingness to be corrected?
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The Church is infallible, and therefore, has no need for such qualities.

… round and round we go.
Jesus never mentioned The Catholic Church or said it and it itself exclusively is the sole interpreter or infallible or unaccountable. But He did warn us about false teachers, antichrists and those that would lead many astray. He did praise the Ephesian Christians for regarding their teachers as accountable, for testing/norming them, and for finding them false.
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There is only one Church, Josiah. Jesus, as her Head, is infallible (He is divine, you know. )

Yes, Jesus is inerrant. Yes, Jesus is our Head. Now, where do you get the idea that therefore we’re all infallible? Certainly not from God! Curious, have you read Genesis Chapter 3? Even in a PERFECT world, your premise is wholly unbiblical. The point is all over Scripture, but if you’ve read even just the first 3 chapters, you’d realize that your premise is unbiblical.
Where is this justification that The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly, perpetually and exclusively - is infallible, incapable of error, unaccountable, and whatever it and it itself exclusively says is just to be accepted with docility?
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“I will build My Church, and the gates of hell will not prevail”.

Actually, He said “I will build my church.” It’s not a part of a proper noun, a legal moniker.

Where does this verse so much as even MENTION The Catholic Church, for the things I asked about or anything whatsoever?

Do you think that truth matters, especially doctrine concerning our very souls?
Do you think that the teachers of such are accountable for the doctrines they teach?
Do you think The Catholic Church teaches doctrines?
IF you answer yes to these, then you must reject the epistemology being defended here as expressed in CCC 87, etc. and you have embraced accountability for all, The Catholic Church no less than any other teacher of doctrine. And you have embraced the necessary norming of positions. The question then becomes WHAT is the most sound norma normans for this norming? Your denomination (like the others that reject the Rule of Scripture: the LDS as well as all the cults) has no alternative; each rejects Sola Scriptura because each rejects accountability but exclusively for self and self alone, thus each rejects norming and WHATEVER may be the rule/canon in such.

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Actually, He said “I will build my church.” It’s not a part of a proper noun, a legal moniker.

Where does this verse so much as even MENTION The Catholic Church, for the things I asked about or anything whatsoever?
'Round and 'round indeed!
Hasn’t it been explained to you that there was only one Church in the early centuries? Since you don’t see the words “Catholic Church” in the Bible, you automatically assume that it can’t be referring to one and the same.

So if Jesus built a church, and it can’t be overpowered by the forces of hell, where is that church today?
 
Hasn’t it been explained to you that there was only one Church in the early centuries?
And I agree, it just has nothing whatsoever to do with The Catholic Church or with The Catholic Church exclusively, specifically and perpetually being infallible, unaccountable, incapable of error and whatever it and it itself alone says is just to be accepted “with docility” “as God speaking.”
Since you don’t see the words “Catholic Church” in the Bible, you automatically assume that it can’t be referring to one and the same.
  1. Then you can’t say, “Scripture says…” when you admit it does not.
  2. I have a hunch that if I posted (as a matter of dogmatic fact or otherwise) that “Jesus said that I’m the smartest person on the planet” your (very relevant) question would be “where?” If I responded, “Well, actually, Jesus never so much as even uttered the word “Josiah” or “smart” or “planet” but why assume that’s not what He meant?” I just wonder if you’d either laugh out loud or just regard my position as totally unworthy of merit and consideration.
  3. IF Jesus said that He would lead The Catholic Church - specifically, solely and exclusively - where did He state that? If Jesus said that The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly and exclusively - will INFALLIBLY follow His lead so as to be an infallible FOLLOWER, where did He state that? If Jesus stated that He would teach The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly, exclusively - and that IT would be an infallible STUDENT, where did He state that?
  4. Jesus DID warn us about false teachers, antichrists and those that lead many astray - and never exempted The Catholic Church from that. He DID praise the Ephesian Christians for regarding their teachers as accountable, for norming/testing them and for finding them false. Jesus did refer to Scripture specifically as such some 22 times 400-1500 years before The Catholic Church told anyone what Scripture is, thus indicating Jesus and His audience needed no such acknowledgment by it. And Jesus used Scripture normatively some 50 times (a praxis called Sola Scriptura) and never once referenced The Catholic Church AT ALL, for anything, about anything, concerning anything, in any regard, in any fashion, for anything, ever, not once.
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And I agree, it just has nothing whatsoever to do with The Catholic Church or with The Catholic Church exclusively, specifically and perpetually being infallible, unaccountable, incapable of error and whatever it and it itself alone says is just to be accepted “with docility” “as God speaking.”
OK, then if Jesus was talking about “a church,” and it isn’t the Catholic Church, which one that we see today was he referring to?
  1. Then you can’t say, “Scripture says…” when you admit it does not.
  2. I have a hunch that if I posted (as a matter of dogmatic fact or otherwise) that “Jesus said that I’m the smartest person on the planet” your (very relevant) question would be “where?” If I responded, “Well, actually, Jesus never so much as even uttered the word “Josiah” or “smart” or “planet” but why assume that’s not what He meant?” I just wonder if you’d either laugh out loud or just regard my position as totally unworthy of merit and consideration.
  3. IF Jesus said that He would lead The Catholic Church - specifically, solely and exclusively - where did He state that? If Jesus said that The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly and exclusively - will INFALLIBLY follow His lead so as to be an infallible FOLLOWER, where did He state that? If Jesus stated that He would teach The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly, exclusively - and that IT would be an infallible STUDENT, where did He state that?
  4. Jesus DID warn us about false teachers, antichrists and those that lead many astray - and never exempted The Catholic Church from that. He DID praise the Ephesian Christians for regarding their teachers as accountable, for norming/testing them and for finding them false. Jesus did refer to Scripture specifically as such some 22 times 400-1500 years before The Catholic Church told anyone what Scripture is, thus indicating Jesus and His audience needed no such acknowledgment by it. And Jesus used Scripture normatively some 50 times (a praxis called Sola Scriptura) and never once referenced The Catholic Church AT ALL, for anything, about anything, concerning anything, in any regard, in any fashion, for anything, ever, not once.
I’ll just pick out #3 here – Jesus mentioned a Church, right? Now, let’s go through our history. Which church that is around today (it must still be here since it can’t be prevailed against) could he have been speaking of? I don’t mean to be disrespectful, but could you give a short, simple answer to the questions I’ve posed in this specific post?
 
Although Jesus used Sola Scriptura and never once regarded The Catholic Church as… anything at all.
Jesus did not use Sola Scriptura because He was God. He is the authority so his interpretation is perfectly and completely valid. When he ascended to the Father, he gave this power to interpret scripture to the Church he founded on Peter.
  1. Peter was/is not The Catholic Church.
  2. Peter was never described as infallible or unaccountable (in fact, Jesus once called him “Satan” didn’t He? Didn’t He spend a LOT of time correcting Peter - indicating that Peter was accountable?
Of course, Peter was the head of the Catholic Church. This is a prime example of why you need an authority to tell you what scripture means. Sola Scriptura is utterly incapable of resolving these kinds of conflicts because documents don’t resolve conflicts, authority does.
…Moot to any issue here.

…Moot to any issue in this thread…
You keep saying these issues are moot. They most emphatically are germane because Sola Scriptura tries, and fails, to discount these issues.
Actually, no clergy from ANY denomination can trace his “chain of ordinations” back to the Apostles since there are virtually no contemporary records of ordainations prior to the 4th century.
It is simple to read the Church Fathers like Polycarp, Ireneaus, Augustine, Justin Martyr, etc al and see how Apostolic succession has progressed over time.
Apostolic Succession does not insure infallibility since even The Catholic Church recognizes the sucession in the Oriental Orthodox and Eastern Orthodox Churches and yet those churches are WRONG according to The Catholic Church, thus, by it’s own insistence, Apostolic Succession - even if any in the RCC could prove such - is moot to the issue of correctness.
You are trying to move the target again. The issue is not about “correctness”, it is about the validity of Sola Scriptura, which is untenable because it does not allow for proper interpretation by any authority.
Except, as we all know, Jesus never authorized The Catholic Church to do anything.
As we all know, Jesus never promised The Catholic Church anything.
Jesus so much as never even MENTIONED it.
For anything. About anything. Concerning anything. At any time. About anything.
Jesus never said that ANY among us is to be regarded as infallible/unacccountable.
This is preposterous. He commissioned the Church. It was Catholic for 1500 years. Again, this is nothing more than your own interpretation which flies in the face of 2000 years of Christian tradition and understanding.
The Three-legged-Stool is the norm for OTHER teachers, not for The Catholic Church. It would be purely a circle of self-authentication if it were, thus The Catholic Church rejects it for such. Self agreeing with self as determined by self has no relation whatsoever to self being correct, The Catholic Church agrees.
I don’t follow what you are at here. Then again, I can’t understand how you take any of the position you propose!
Thus, I direct you to what you called “The only possible rational way.”
Or you could just follow Jesus into all Truth by trusting in the Catholic Church, which he founded, and stop “protesting”. Sola Scriptura is a dismal failure as evidenced by the thousands of different interpretations of Scripture.
 
Or you could just follow Jesus into all Truth by trusting in the Catholic Church, which he founded, and stop “protesting”. Sola Scriptura is a dismal failure as evidenced by the thousands of different interpretations of Scripture.
You are absolutely right, IronHammer! Ephesians 3:10 tells us “that through the church the manifold wisdom of God might now be made known to the principalities and powers in the heavens.” It doesn’t say that through Sacred Scripture the manifold wisdom of God will be made known - it’s through the church - and at the time Paul wrote this, there was only one church - the Catholic Church.

Ephesians 1:22-23 also says of Jesus, “he (God) has put all things under his (Jesus’) feet and has made him the head over all things for the church, which is his body, the fullness of him who fills all in all.”

The Church is the body of Christ, the fullness of the truth. Sacred Scripture is part of that, but not by any means the whole picture. Those who deny the authority of the Church are denying the body of Christ, and they are therefore denying Christ, the head of the Church. They are substituting doctrines of men for the teachings of Jesus in the Sacred Scriptures.
 
Matthew 28:19-20
“Go, therefore and make disciples of ALL nations…teaching them to observe ALL that I have commanded you; And behold, I am with you ALL days, even unto the consummation of the world.”

That is a statement of Universality, Katholicos, Catholicus, Catholic.

Catholic means "universal’, which in itself means, ‘of or relating to, or affecting the entire world and ALL peoples therein’. It means, ALL encompassing, comprehensibly broad, general, and containing ALL that is neccessary. In summation, it means ALL people in ALL places, having ALL that is necessary, and for ALL time.

AJ refuses to believe that Jesus was speaking in universal terms by using the word “ALL”. AJ refuses to believe that ALL is a statement of universality. I don’t think a stack of dictionaries and encyclopedias with clear cut definitions of “universal” and “ALL” will make any difference because AJ’s barriers may have more to do with pain that with reason.

Romans 1:8 ….and you belong to that Church whose faith St. Paul describes as being "proclaimed (KATanggeletai) in the whole universe (en HOLO to kosmo)”

AJ simply ignores the Greek origins of the term.

“Where the Bishop appears, there let the people be, just as where Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.”
St. Ignatius of Antioch’s letter to the Smyrneans, paragraph 8, of 106 A.D.,

AJ cannot or will not accept the historical facts. The verbal term “Catholic” must have, by common sense, predated the written form, which means that within 10 years after John penned Revelation, the prefix “Catholic” was in use to describe a divine character of the Church.

Language is in a constant state of flux. Even modern day English is constantly undergoing change. If Jesus had said to the Apostles, “…upon this Rock I will build My universal Church…” they would not have understood him. AJ takes this to mean Jesus did not build the Catholic Church because Jesus did not explicity use the term “Catholic”. He refuses to understand the difference between terms and existing concepts. “Catholic” is an existing concept, going from Greek to Latin to English, that is thorougly biblical and historically obvious.

AJ refuses to say which Church St. Ignatius is talking about. (see the above quote) There is no point in asking him because he just refuses to answer, or ignores the post entirely, or parrots the same nonsense as if it answers the question.

AJ is really demanding that we prove him wrong, that way he can justify his anger against the Church and he doesn’t have to grow up.
 
“…Where the Bishop appears, there let the people be, just as where Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” St. Ignatius of Antioch’s letter to the Smyrneans, paragraph 8, of 106 A.D., AJ cannot or will not accept the historical facts. The verbal term “Catholic” must have, by common sense, predated the written form, which means that within 10 years after John penned Revelation, the prefix “Catholic” was in use to describe a divine character of the Church
Actually it predates that. The term Catholic Church is found in scripture which is probably where the term originated. Ignatius is the one who gets credit for the first documented use of the term as a name for the church. But if one looks at Acts 9:31 and reads:

“So the church throughout all Judea and Galilee and Sama’ria had peace and was built up; and walking in the fear of the Lord and in the comfort of the Holy Spirit it was multiplied.” [Acts 9:31 RSV]

There the words “church throughout all” is translated from the Greek words “Ecclesia kata holis” But it was after Ignatius that the term Catholic Church became used more and more to designate the true church. For example the Martyrdom of Polycarp of 155AD states:

“And of the elect, he was one indeed, the wonderful martyr Polycarp, who in our days was an apostolic and prophetic teacher, bishop of the Catholic Church in Smyrna. For every word which came forth from his mouth was fulfilled and will be fulfilled” (Martyrdom of Polycarp 16:2 [A.D. 155]).

In addition the Muratorian Canon has this:

"Besides these [letters of Paul] there is one to Philemon, and one to Titus, and two to Timothy, in affection and love, but nevertheless regarded as holy in the Catholic Church, in the ordering of churchly discipline. There is also one [letter] to the Laodiceans and another to the Alexandrians, forged under the name of Paul, in regard to the heresy of Marcion, and there are several others which cannot be received by the Church, for it is not suitable that gall be mixed with honey. The epistle of Jude, indeed, and the two ascribed to John are received by the Catholic Church (Muratorian fragment [A.D. 177]).

Here, not only is the term “Catholic Church” used to refer to the church but the idea of “…the church” as a distinct identity contradicts the protestant idea of an “invisible” structure of believers.
 
Originally Posted by Philthy forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
And what is the standard by which embracing it has been judged as resulting in the truth??
We regard it as truth, in fact, as inerrant - the very inscripturated words of God.]
You didnt answer the question, AJ. The question was not, “Is Scripture true?”, nor was it “Is Scripture God’s word?” What I asked was by what standard has embracing it as the rule been shown to result in the truth? You seem to be in denial over the reality that the “truth” of Scripture requires not merely the knowledge of what is written, and not merely a comprehension of what was written, but it requires an interpretation of what was written (ie an understanding of what is MEANT by what is written). Need a simple example? “Unless you eat my flesh and drink my blood you have no life in you”. You think this can stand alone as the rule? I dont. How, exactly, is this “inerrant, inscripturated truth” meant to be applied to the life of the believer AJ? Who decides that? You are very, very short on details and very very long on vague philosophical principles. When push comes to shove, you will not provide any “accountable” “normed” “rule” for this passage because despite all your philosophical speculations and rhetoric you have none! 500 years and counting no one who has embraced the “rule of Scripture” paradigm that you have suggested has produced such an accountable norm.
Now, no rule (no matter how true) insures that all will be true. The Rule of Law may establish that the speed limit is 45 MPH but that does not make you INCAPABLE of driving faster than that, but it DOES establish the rule/canon for the norming of your driving in that regard.
 
AJ:
I’d be glad to compare the doctrinal differences between Luther and Calvin both regarded as accountable to the Rule of Scripture to the doctrinal differences between the RCC and LDS both rejecting any rule, both declaring self to be infallible/unaccountable, both insisting that whatever self says just be accepted with docility. My study of the cults leads me to believe the diversity of which you complain is FAR greater under your model than mine.
But this is impure science AJ. I could just as easily apply a different standard - comparing doctrinal disunity of the ancient Churches vs the doctrinal disunity of the modern ones - like yours and the LDS. How do you suppose the modern churches would fair then? Or we could compare all Churches TODAY with the writings of the Churches in the first centuries, prior to any split. What would also be a purer, more objective more scientific assessment would be to look at the doctrine of the SAME entity OVER TIME. Compare the Catholic Church of 1500 years ago to the CC of today; while looking at Protestant churches of the Reformation to ones today.
If the rule has remained constant, the doctrines should as well. We all know what such a comparison would yield, and your churches would not fair well.
Lastly, AJ your point above is greatly flawed. You have made the assumption that if two churches practice “self exempting self” and that they have doctrinal differences then that proves that “self exempting self” is bad. In reality, it only shows that “self exempting self” as the SOLE means for deriving truth is bad. This is not what the CC teaches or practices. The CC relies on APOSTOLIC SUCCESSION and the guidance of the HS and human intellect and human discourse. You simply remain confused over the fact that the Apostles received this charism of infallibility and they passed it on to their successors and that it is the charism which provides certainty of truth, not the other incidental factors.
AJ:
I strongly disagree. Study the cults. Your model results in FAR, FAR greater disunity. Having no rule or accountability does not lead to more comformity - in theology or in anything else in life. “I’m right so I’m right so there, I don’t need no accountability cuz I say I can’t be wrong so I’m right - just accept it with docility” is quite irrelevant to correctness.
You have closed the world into your “self exempting self” box, a box of your own making. Your comparisons are only valid if the ONLY consideration were the “self exempting self” paradigm, but IT ISNT. The standard you should be using is apostolic succession: what happens to doctrine when you ignore it? You start naming Churches after people’s ideas…

Blessings!
 
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What?  Using Scripture as the norm **IS** Sola Scriptura.
There are many definitions of SS, so if you wish to embrace this one, who am I to argue?

The fact that Scripture is normative is a Teaching of the Catholic Church.

Jesus and the Apostles did not teach Sola Scriptura. They used scripture authoritatively and normatively.
Funny, no one told Moses or Jesus that! Jesus referred to Scripture - specifically by that very term - 22 times before even The Catholic Church itself claims that it even came into existence! And, funny, The Catholic Church doesn’t agree with you, either. It teaches that GOD produced the Scriptures.
You are not reading carefully, Josiah. You did not process what I wrote. I have written it at least twice now, and you are still not getting it. Now ,if that can happen when you read my posts in this thread, what makes you think it can’t happen when you read Scripture? You have your own prejudices stuck so deeply in your head that you are not able to process a different point of view, even it is repeatedly offered to you!

This human propensity to cling to the calculus of subjective factors is why Jesus appointed a Teaching Authority over the Church.
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EXACTLY!   It doesn't say, "the Holy Spirit will lead The Catholic Church exclusively into all truth and it and it alone will perpetually and infallibly follow that lead and neither God nor man is to regard it and it alone as accountable."
Josiah, the Aposltes understood that Jesus only founded ONE CHURCH. It is Catholic. They understood that the promise to be led into all Truth was made to that Church. They believed that those who departed from them were no longer covered by the promises of Christ.

The reason the Church is not perpetual is that we are sojourning here, and when Jesus comes for His Bride, there will no longer be a need for a Teaching Authority here on earth.

You seem to be espousing the Great Apostasy theory of the Mormons. Were you a Mormon previously, or has this theory also infiltrated the Lutheran communion?
Your quote makes the point: God never promised The Catholic Church anything.
The Apostles, early fathers, and all the believers for 1600 years certainly thought he did. How is it, do you suppose, that God was so weak and ineffectual during all that time that He was unable to convince the Catholic Church that this was not the case?
And God being an inerrant leader has NOTHING to do with anything or anyone being an INFALLIBLE follower.
Well, Josiah, I think if you were to use a little common sense here, you would realize that human beings lack the capacity to be infallible without divine intervention. There fore, God being an inerrant leader has EVERYTHING to do with it. 😃
You seem to be confusing the Teacher with the students, the Leader with the followers, and (perhaps forgetting about Genesis Chapter 3) seem to be forgetting that even under PERFECT conditions, with PERFECT teaching and leading, people are neither perfect students or followers - and are NOT regarded as unaccountable.
No, but then again, I do not subscribe to your magical unaccountable theory. It seems very clear to me from scripture and sacred traditions that teachers are even held accountable with greater strictness. Apparently there is one or more that hurt you who was not, so you have devised this theory out of your resentment.
 
Since the bishops and teachers of The Oriental Orthodox Churches and The Eastern Orthodox Churches have valid Apostolic Succession according to The Catholic Church, and since those Churches are WRONG according to The Catholic Church, therefore Apostolic Succession does not insure correctness, as was the point. .
What is wrong with them?
 
Actually, Concordia Publishing House bound my Bible together, not The Catholic Church. But this thread isn’t about our individual tomes, it’s about accountability and what is the most sound norma normans for the evaluations of the doctrinal positions among us.
Perhaps you might benefit from a little research into how the book you now call “Bible” came into existence.

Catholics created the Bible, and it is used normatively and authoritatively because it is a Catholic book. Jesus gave His authority to the Catholic Church, and the Catholic Church used that authority to assemble the Bible.
You are confusing your denomination’s official acknowledgement of what is Scripture that it made at Trent with the embrace of Scripture as such. Apples and oranges.
The Catholic Church is not a “denomination”. The Catholic Church is the One Church founded by Christ. All other ecclesial communities have defined themselves by how they have departed from (denominated) from Catholicism.

The pronouncement at Trent was a re-iteration of what was completed by the Catholic Church in AD 382, when she bound the Septuagint together with the 27 books she infallibly selected under the guidance of the HS to create the NT.
It would seem that since Jesus specifically referred to Scripture (by that term) some 22 times and used such normatively some 50 times - all before The Catholic Church even itself claims that it came into existence, then OBVIOUSLY and UNDENIABLY, The Catholic Church had nothing to do with what is and is not Scripture (unless you wish to argue that The Catholic Church went back in time and told Jesus which is and is not Scripture; you’d also need to prove that The Catholic Church told the Israelities in 1400 BC that The Ten Commandments were Scripture).
Well, the Apostles and the early fathers saw it differently, Josiah. They used the Alexandrian Septuagint, and that collection was their normative scripture. Catholics wrote, collected, disseminated, preserved, canonized and promulgated the Bible, which contained 27 books DECLARED AS SCRIPTURE AND ADDED to the Hebrew Scriptures. To say that the Church has had nothing to do with what is scripture and what is not demonstrates a gross lack of knowledge about your own family history. Have you considered, before making such embarassing remarks, finding out the facts?
You might be noticing that Jesus never promised The Catholic Church anything. He never authorized it for anything. He never so much as even MENTIONED it - entirely in passing about nothing at all.
No, I do not notice this Josiah, but I am beginning to understand that this is the only way you are able to notice history. You are not the only prejudiced anti-C atholic I have encountered here. Some people cannot accept anything from the Catholic Church, including Christ.

What is your goal here Josiah? Are you just here to criticize Catholicism? It does not appear that you are here for any “Catholic Answers”. On the contrary, it seems that you are unable to accept a Catholic point of view about anything. You even quote the CCC, but don’t understand what it is saying.

If you just want to ply anti-Catholic rhetoric, this is not the appropriate venue.
… round and round we go.
Actually, as your position becomes increasing clear, I think the road is going to straighten out for you real quick. 😉
Yes, Jesus is inerrant. Yes, Jesus is our Head. Now, where do you get the idea that therefore we’re all infallible?
Since it is not my idea, but one you imagined in your own mind, you will have to cook up an answer to this as well. I trust you will be able to entertain yourself in the process. You seem to have quite an active imagination.
Certainly not from God! Curious, have you read Genesis Chapter 3? Even in a PERFECT world, your premise is wholly unbiblical. The point is all over Scripture, but if you’ve read even just the first 3 chapters, you’d realize that your premise is unbiblical.
Since I don’t have a premise that all of us are infallible, I don’t; have to worry about the fact that the idea is not only unbiblical,but a product of your imagination. Whew!
 
Actually, He said “I will build my church.” It’s not a part of a proper noun, a legal moniker.
True, He only built One, and it was described as “Catholic”, but called The Way.
Where does this verse so much as even MENTION The Catholic Church, for the things I asked about or anything whatsoever?
There was only One Church. It was the Catholic Church. I understand that you don’t believe that, but I am writing it so that others who are reading it will not fall into the historical error into which you have fallen. You seem to believe that the Catholic Church emerged at some other time in history, and that it is not identical with the one described in the NT. You have to believe that lie, because otherwise, you would have to become Catholic! 😃
Do you think that truth matters, especially doctrine concerning our very souls?
Do you think that the teachers of such are accountable for the doctrines they teach?
Do you think The Catholic Church teaches doctrines?
I made an extensive answer to this above. I think you are not reading my posts.
IF you answer yes to these, then you must reject the epistemology being defended here as expressed in CCC 87, etc. and you have embraced accountability for all, The Catholic Church no less than any other teacher of doctrine.
Indeed, the Catholic Church is much MORE than every other teacher of Doctrine. Since her doctrines come from Christ, and are protected from error by the HS, she is infallible in her teaching. According to that doctrine, teachers will be judged with greater strictness,and it is the duty of the Church to hold people accountable for their teaching.
And you have embraced the necessary norming of positions. The question then becomes WHAT is the most sound norma normans for this norming? Your denomination (like the others that reject the Rule of Scripture: the LDS as well as all the cults) has no alternative; each rejects Sola Scriptura because each rejects accountability but exclusively for self and self alone, thus each rejects norming and WHATEVER may be the rule/canon in such.
I think you must be cutting and pasting this part. I think I have read it many times already. What is your goal here Josiah? What do you hope to accomplish with this cut and paste passage?
I agree, it just has nothing whatsoever to do with The Catholic Church or with The Catholic Church exclusively
I understand why you have to invent that the Catholic Church came from some other time and place in history. If you were to accept that it is the NT Church, and identical with the one described there, you would have to join it, and that would be awfully difficult. You seem to have a considerable degree of anti-Catholic hostility.
  1. Then you can’t say, “Scripture says…” when you admit it does not.
Sure we can! How come we don’t have the right to interpret scripture but you do? We understand what Scripture says in the light of the Apostles’ teaching. We understand that when “scripture says” Church, it means Catholic Church. We know that because there was only one Church, and it was Catholic. 😃
  1. I have a hunch that if I posted (as a matter of dogmatic fact or otherwise) that “Jesus said that I’m the smartest person on the planet” your (very relevant) question would be “where?” If I responded, “Well, actually, Jesus never so much as even uttered the word “Josiah” or “smart” or “planet” but why assume that’s not what He meant?” I just wonder if you’d either laugh out loud or just regard my position as totally unworthy of merit and consideration.
This point is well made. However, Catholics don’t “assume”. We “receive”. You will find this principle in the Scriptures also. The Faith is not distilled from the reading of a truncated Bible 2000 years after the fact. The Faith is handed down through the paradosis. The faith is protected by the power of the HS, through the Apostolic Succession. No assumptions are needed.

On the contrary, Josiah, it is you who are assuming. You assume that it it is Catholic, it must be wrong. You assume that the Catholic Church was created some other time, and is not the Church of the NT. These assumptions on your part are at odds with history.
 
  1. IF Jesus said that He would lead The Catholic Church - specifically, solely and exclusively - where did He state that?
There was only One Church when made His promise to lead it. That one Church was, and still is, Catholic. The HS leads a great many non-Catholics, but is always leading them in the direction of Catholicity.
If Jesus said that The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly and exclusively - will INFALLIBLY follow His lead so as to be an infallible FOLLOWER, where did He state that?
Josiah, the Church does not need to “follow” Him, as she is already in, with, and through Him. It is the human members that sojourn in this world that need to follow HIm. When you pose questions like this, it reflects a deficient view of the Church. All who are in unity with the Church, to whom the promise was made, can benefit from the gift of infallibility.
If Jesus stated that He would teach The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly, exclusively - and that IT would be an infallible STUDENT, where did He state that?
I guess I wonder why you have so much trouble with this. Do you think it is not possible for Jesus to lead His Church into All Truth?
  1. Jesus DID warn us about false teachers, antichrists and those that lead many astray - and never exempted The Catholic Church from that. He DID praise the Ephesian Christians for regarding their teachers as accountable, for norming/testing them and for finding them false.
👍

It is very Catholic of you to notice this.
Jesus did refer to Scripture specifically as such some 22 times 400-1500 years before The Catholic Church told anyone what Scripture is, thus indicating Jesus and His audience needed no such acknowledgment by it. And Jesus used Scripture normatively some 50 times (a praxis called Sola Scriptura)
No, Josiah. Using Scripture normatively is quite Catholic, and does not equate to the doctrine of SS.
and never once referenced The Catholic Church AT ALL, for anything, about anything, concerning anything, in any regard, in any fashion, for anything, ever, not once.
You seem to believe this strongly. Why are you here, Josiah? You seem to have an anti-Catholic axe to grind, not sure why. Are you invested in convincing Catholics of these ideas that you hold, so that they will abandon their false faith?
 
It is a thread directed at Protestants and it quickly turned into a typical Protestants are wrong thread. So Protestants defend their beliefs…see this thread for what it is…:cool:
 
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