Protestant Communion?

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You know that non-Catholics may participate in any liturgy of the Church. The only restriction is that they not receive the Eucharist. That is hardly “second class treatment.”
Sure it is. How is it not? Are you saying that receiving the Eucharist is not a great blessing and privilege, and that the Eucharist is not the source and summit of the Christian life?

Now it may be justified to give Christians belong to other traditions “second class treatment.” I do not assume, as so many modern people do, that such a policy is automatically wrong without investigating its merits. But please let’s be honest about what it is.
How ungracious of you to make this about money, as well. No one, not even Catholics, need put anything into the offering plate. If you don’t want to donate or can’t donate you are equally welcome. It’s one thing to object to a church’s teachings, it’s another to denigrate that church merely for upholding its own teachings. :tsktsk:
I doubt Thorolfr was talking about Catholics, actually. I think he was talking about evangelicals. (There was a high-profile case recently where an evangelical church removed a gay couple from a leadership position but allowed them to go on attending, and I suspect that’s what he had in mind.)

Edwin
 
I don’t “want to believe” anything in this conversation.
that’s disingenuous.
I know the RCC’s teaching on the matter. I know the biblical model. The two don’t line up. Of course you don’t agree
One doesn’t have to agree with the RC teaching to see that your “biblical model” includes all kinds of assumptions that are anything but self-evident from the Biblical text, as all such “biblical models” do. And yes, this has a lot to do with what you want to believe, as do everyone’s beliefs.

The Bible does not address the question of how people who reject some part of divine revelation but still believe in Christ should be treated.

And of course you don’t think you reject any part of divine revelation. But simply to assume that you don’t and then berate Catholics for excluding you is to beg the question in a particularly blatant and unhelpful way.

Edwin
 
that’s disingenuous.
How so? I believe in truth, just as you do. There are certain things that I can say “I know” not “I want to believe,” just as I’m sure there are things you do that on as well. “I know my Saviour lives,” not “I’m wanting to believe my Saviour lives.” That’s not disingenuous.
One doesn’t have to agree with the RC teaching to see that your “biblical model” includes all kinds of assumptions that are anything but self-evident from the Biblical text, as all such “biblical models” do. And yes, this has a lot to do with what you want to believe, as do everyone’s beliefs.
Never-the-less, what is obvious to one may not be obvious to others, and just because it isn’t obvious to others doesn’t mean it isn’t obvious to some. I’ve been around long enough to read your posts, and from reading them I know you’ll understand what I mean; there are some personal beliefs that we hold that we know to be true, there are some we hold that we think are true, and there are some that we are more or less shaky on. What those are will be different for each of us as individuals.
The Bible does not address the question of how people who reject some part of divine revelation but still believe in Christ should be treated.
I disagree. And I know that most here would even disagree on what constitutes the whole of “divine revelation.”
And of course you don’t think you reject any part of divine revelation. But simply to assume that you don’t and then berate Catholics for excluding you is to beg the question in a particularly blatant and unhelpful way.
I’m sorry if I came across as “berating Catholics for excluding me.” I truly am sorry, because I’m not. I’m pointing out the exclusion as well as the inclusion found in some other Churches (all different depending on which Church we are talking about), and this thread was started as a question about “Protestant Communion.” I’m pointing out that there is indeed a stance of unity of brethren and a value in not splitting said brethren into groups of who can commune at the Lord’s Table and who can’t, but in rather in recognizing the Body of Christ, that is including Catholics, Orthodox, Protestant, etc… * In essence I believe wholeheartedly that speaks to whether or not Christ is present in Protestant communion*.

Grace and peace,
K
 
If Protestant communion is invalid, what relationship to Christ is engendered by participating in that communion?
Protestant communion is a subjective experience. The bread and wine only symbolize the body and blood of Christ. The communion will affect the person to the degree that he is devoted to the Person of Jesus. If the communicant is devoted to Jesus, the experience becomes an act of devotion and can even be an act of the person’s love. For those not devoted to him, the experience will mean little. For those who receive the Eucharist in the Catholic and Orthodox Churches, the experience is more than merely subjective. The eucharistic elements (over and above their symbolic value) have an objective reality apart from the recipient’s religiosity.
These recipients have the inexpressible experience of the intimate visitation of Jesus within their very bodies. Nothing on the face of the earth can equal this.
Answered by: Fr. Vincent Serpa O.P.
 
The Bible does not address the question of how people who reject some part of divine revelation but still believe in Christ should be treated.
Hi C

Very thought provoking statement. I think it has been touched upon on before in another thread but it escapes me now. I would add that the bible then dealt with and came out of a much more universal church that ironically allowed broader range of interpretations. She had less divine revelation (by design ?) or claimed divine revelation That is, she had less doctrine, dogma and kept the main thing the main thing. You were for Christ or you were not . A bit like you go from the simplicity yet world changing apostles creed to the voluminous Trent decrees etc. A bit deja vu with the OT covenants also.

From my understanding the early church had communion by three or four possible understandings yet all eating from the same loaf. And any one of those understandings could get you into trouble, with government officials, not church officials.

Thanks for the good point and letting me ramble on with it

Blessings
 
"Protestant communion is a subjective experience. The bread and wine only symbolize the body and blood of Christ. The communion will affect the person to the degree that he is devoted to the Person of Jesus. If the communicant is devoted to Jesus, the experience becomes an act of devotion and can even be an act of the person’s love. For those not devoted to him, the experience will mean little. For those who receive the Eucharist in the Catholic and Orthodox Churches, the experience is more than merely subjective. The eucharistic elements (over and above their symbolic value) have an objective reality apart from the recipient’s religiosity.
These recipients have the inexpressible experience of the intimate visitation of Jesus within their very bodies. Nothing on the face of the earth can equal this.

Answered by: Fr. Vincent Serpa O.P. "
Hi E

Whatever the view is on real presence , there is an element of subjectivity, and of course the blessings are magnified by the participants maturity and openness to blessings.

Now as far as objectivity, I would challenge anyone to meet or observe fellow communion participating Christians of equal maturity and fervor on any given Monday. Then try to figure out which one had a transubstantiated host and which one had a consubstantiated host and which one had a spiritual and or symbolic host the day before.

Blessings
 
Again, I never said anything about the “stated purpose” nor “where the focus was meant to be.” You may disagree all you like–it’s what makes you Protestants, but the Church cannot grant you what she may not grant you merely because of what you want to believe. 🙂
Hi Della

I know what you mean by the underlined in a popular sense. In specifics though we are protestant not because we disagree with you (the CC), but protested when you (thru secular governments) would not allow us to be different anymore. The recently given right to be Lutheran (1526) was to be rescinded giving way to "protestation’’ 1529 AD. It was more about the right of religious freedom than protesting any particular doctrine from what I understand.

Blessings
 
That begs the question. You obviously embrace that idea, I do not. Many embrace the idea you put forth, many do not. And there we are. Union with Christ is union with His Church, it is a logical entailment, but not in the manner many liturgically centered churches believe.
Are you saying that you can be united to Christ, and yet not hold to what he teaches?
If we want to go into semantics, which I don’t, we go into the Greek as it was recorded and the Aramaic and/or the Hebrew.
Be my guest. Please do show me where I was wrong, using the Greek texts. I assume you know Greek, of course.

To help you along, I can quote the texts for you:

19 καὶ λαβὼν ἄρτον εὐχαριστήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς λέγων, Τοῦτό ἐστιν τὸ σῶμά μου τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν διδόμενον: τοῦτο ποιεῖτε εἰς τὴν ἐμὴν ἀνάμνησιν. (Luke 22:19)

24 καὶ εὐχαριστήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ εἶπεν, Τοῦτό μού ἐστιν τὸ σῶμα τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν: τοῦτο ποιεῖτε εἰς τὴν ἐμὴν ἀνάμνησιν. 25 ὡσαύτως καὶ τὸ ποτήριον μετὰ τὸ δειπνῆσαι, λέγων, Τοῦτο τὸ ποτήριον ἡ καινὴ διαθήκη ἐστὶν ἐν τῷ ἐμῷ αἵματι: τοῦτο ποιεῖτε, ὁσάκις ἐὰν πίνητε, εἰς τὴν ἐμὴν ἀνάμνησιν (1Cor 11:24-25)
 
Are you saying that you can be united to Christ, and yet not hold to what he teaches?
I’m saying that there is debate as to what He teaches, everyone agrees at least on that point. I do hold to what He teaches, but you wouldn’t agree with that. And, here we are.
Be my guest. Please do show me where I was wrong, using the Greek texts. I assume you know Greek, of course.
Please reread my words; I have no wish to go into the semantics. We delve into the Greek and then someone comes along and says He would have spoken in Aramaic, so the Greek doesn’t count, then we delve into the Aramaic, and someone says we have to go to the Hebrew to understand the culture, and then someone comes along and says, forget it, you have to believe what someone else tells you because they are a part of the One True Organizational Church, the only ones lead by the Spirit, and on and on. No thanks, I can do that on my own, and work out my own salvation with fear and trembling. You aren’t going to change your mind due to my argumentation and I’m not going to change my mind due to yours.

We are each quite capable of prayer and study, that much is obvious.
To help you along, I can quote the texts for you:
Thanks for your help, but it isn’t necessary, and everyone here has the tools they need to delve into any scripture in any language at any time… and it’s been done by people from all sides repeatedly throughout the years, which we can all also read and study.

Prayers,
K
 
I’m not sure Luther believed in the real presence in the same way that the Anglicans and Catholics do however.
That depends entirely on what Church you are talking about. As I’ve said many times on these boards (but probably not to you, since you are new), Lutheranism is not a Church. Lutheranism is an ecclesial tradition, comparable to, say, Byzantinianism. There are different Byzantine Churches, with very different theological views. Some are in communion with Rome, some are not. Some acknowledge baptism done outside their communion, others do not, etc. But that doesn’t mean that there is a problem with Byzantinianism as such. It is the same with Lutheranism. You need to evaluate each Church for itself. Just as I cannot criticise the Hungarian Greek Catholic Church for something the Russian Orthodox Church say, one cannot criticise the Church of Norway (my Church) for something the WELS say. The Church of Norway, is part of the Lutheran tradition, and is in fact in complete communion with the Church of England.
Lutherans don’t believe in the adoration of the Eucharist as does catholic church.
That is also wrong (to some extent). Yes, Lutheran churches tend not to have specific adoration services (although that is not universal), but that doesn’t mean that Lutherans don’t teach that we should adore Christ in the eucharistic species. In fact, we do so in Mass, and when Luther rearranged the Mass, first in 1523 (the Formula missae), then in 1526 (Deutsche Messe), he put the sanctus after the consecration, to denote that we, through that, adore Christ in the eucharistic species. He also wrote a work defending eucharistic adoration (the adoration of Christ in the eucharistic species, not necessarily special adoration services) in 1523; The Adoration of the Sacrament. Now, there are Lutherans who deny this, and they include(ed) Philip Melanchthon, one of Luther’s closest companions. He went completely off the deep end, in my opinion, changing the Augsburg Confession, and started referring to eucharistic adoration as ‘bread worship.’ IMNSHO, he ceased being a Lutheran.
But Luther did keep many Catholic traditions, including his own veneration of Mary, which I find fascinating.
And the reason he did that was that it was Catholic.
Someone on this thread also mentioned the eastern orthodox church. It should be noted that the Eastern Orthodox and/or the Eastern Rite church is NOT protestant. It is "the other lung of the Holy Mother Church, per the Vatican, and should never be viewed in the same light as “protestant.”
I agree. I also would claim not to be a Protestant myself, especially the way it is now used. Originally, the word merely referred to those Christians who protested the Holy Roman Emperor’s enforcement of the Edict of Worms, restricting their religious freedom. It was thus not a protest against the Church as such, but against governmental regulation (much like the Roman Catholic Church’s current fight against the HHS Mandate in the US). Now, however, it has, especially among certain Roman Catholic apologists, become shorthand for ‘anyone who is Christian but which happens not to be Roman Catholic or Orthodox.’

I have, for instance, been asked several times to defend why I believe that sacraments are only symbolic. And since I believe nothing of the sort, and such a belief is antithetical to everything Lutheran, I suspect that many people just toss everyone (they label as) ‘Protestant’ into the same bag, and then produce an army of straw men.

As a sidenote, I can say that one of the Roman Catholic participants on this board tried to define ‘Protestant’ as ‘those protesting against Rome.’ The problem, of course, is that this would include the Orthodox. The only way to change that is to redefine ‘Protestant.’

And the other lung, according to Vatican II, is NOT Orthodoxy, but the eastern traditions.
 
I’m saying that there is debate as to what He teaches, everyone agrees at least on that point. I do hold to what He teaches, but you wouldn’t agree with that. And, here we are.
But now you have changed topics. The topic was ‘does Eucharistic union entail doctrinal union?,’ to which my answer is yes, since Eucharistic union entail union with Christ, which in turn entails union with his Church, and with what Christ teaches. You seem to agree to the last. Thus it follows logically for the Roman Catholic Church to restrict communion in her masses to those who are in doctrinal union with her.
Please reread my words; I have no wish to go into the semantics. We delve into the Greek and then someone comes along and says He would have spoken in Aramaic, so the Greek doesn’t count, then we delve into the Aramaic, and someone says we have to go to the Hebrew to understand the culture, and then someone comes along and says, forget it, you have to believe what someone else tells you because they are a part of the One True Organizational Church, the only ones lead by the Spirit, and on and on. No thanks, I can do that on my own, and work out my own salvation with fear and trembling. You aren’t going to change your mind due to my argumentation and I’m not going to change my mind due to yours.
Well, speak for yourself. I’m not a postmodernist. If I am convinced of something, I am going to change my mind. This also makes me want to ask this question: Given this absurd attitude, why are you even part of a discussion board?
Thanks for your help, but it isn’t necessary, and everyone here has the tools they need to delve into any scripture in any language at any time… and it’s been done by people from all sides repeatedly throughout the years, which we can all also read and study.
So you are not going to engage in something which could prove or disprove what you write. Interesting.
 
But now you have changed topics. The topic was ‘does Eucharistic union entail doctrinal union?,’ to which my answer is yes, since Eucharistic union entail union with Christ, which in turn entails union with his Church, and with what Christ teaches. You seem to agree to the last. Thus it follows logically for the Roman Catholic Church to restrict communion in her masses to those who are in doctrinal union with her.
No, the topic was whether or not Jesus is spiritually present in Protestant communion. Every other rabbit trail is off topic, and yes, I’m sure I added too those rabbit trails.
Well, speak for yourself. I’m not a postmodernist. If I am convinced of something, I am going to change my mind. This also makes me want to ask this question: Given this absurd attitude, why are you even part of a discussion board?
It’s my job to read people by the words and attitudes they put forth.

I’m more than willing to talk with others in an exchange that may actually get somewhere, or one in which those members dialoguing do so with love toward one another. I’m a member of many discussion boards, and get a lot out of them, I learn a lot, I teach a lot, and I love having meaningful discussions.
So you are not going to engage in something which could prove or disprove what you write. Interesting.
No, I’m choosing not to engage with you on this topic on this messageboard.

Grace and peace to you KjetilK,
K
 
No, it was not. That is in fact a distortion of his words. He did not say ‘do this to remember me,’ he said ‘do this in memory/remembrance of me.’ That’s two different things.
Hi K

Not sure I follow.“In remembrance” and “to remember” seem like the exact same thing.

Don’t get me wrong , I am sticking with “in remembrance”. Just not sure how you go from “to remember” to “show forth His death til He returns in the attitude of Thanksgiving” to “in remembrance’’ being, " declaring you believe all the Church holds true.” The former is more to the text and to the word eucharist=thanksgiving. Is the latter then more, by way of tradition ?

Blessings
 
Hi C

Very thought provoking statement. I think it has been touched upon on before in another thread but it escapes me now. I would add that the bible then dealt with and came out of a much more universal church that ironically allowed broader range of interpretations.
Maybe. But what is your evidence for this? Certainly many issues hadn’t been thought of yet. But by the same token, there were fewer points on which to differ in the first place. If anything, it seems to me that the very early Church was much more concerned with doctrinal uniformity than, say, the modern Catholic Church, precisely because the vast number of different ways in which Christian revelation could be interpreted had not yet become evident.
She had less divine revelation (by design ?) or claimed divine revelation That is, she had less doctrine, dogma
In Catholic terms the implications of revelation were much less worked out (they will never be fully worked out this side of the Eschaton).
and kept the main thing the main thing. You were for Christ or you were not .
It is not at all clear to me that there is any period of early Christian history revealed in the NT in which that is true. Paul, in letters like 1 Thessalonians, Galatians, and 1-2 Corinthians rebukes various false understandings of Christianity over and over again. He doesn’t seem to think that it’s OK that the Galatians are requiring adherence to Jewish law just because they are “for Christ.”
A bit like you go from the simplicity yet world changing apostles creed to the voluminous Trent decrees etc.
From a Catholic perspective, the decrees of Trent are necessary to reject false interpretations of the faith–they aren’t just elaborations for the fun of it.
From my understanding the early church had communion by three or four possible understandings yet all eating from the same loaf.
But these appear different to us because they use language that we now identify with what have become different understandings. Early Christians may not have noticed them as differences at all. And the fact that sometimes the same Church Father uses language that sounds “transubstantiation” and then language that sounds “symbolic” or “spiritual” (Augustine being one major example of this), or doesn’t ever notice the apparent disagreement with someone else who uses an allegedly “different” understanding, may indicate that really these were just different emphases and rhetorical ways of talking about the Eucharist. It’s hard to be sure, because they weren’t asking the same questions.

That’s the essence of doctrinal development. Once you ask a new question, you can’t just repeat the old answers, because no one has come up with answers to a question no one has asked before.
And any one of those understandings could get you into trouble, with government officials, not church officials.
The Gnostics appear to have been condemned for, among other things, rejecting the Real Presence.
Thanks for the good point and letting me ramble on with it
No rambling–you are very concise compared to me:p

Edwin
 
Not sure I follow.“In remembrance” and “to remember” seem like the exact same thing.
To do something in remembrance is not the same as remembering. We remember Christ fine without the Eucharist. The point is that it is a memorial. That involves memory, of course, but is not reducible to it.

And what Christ said to do, in remembrance of him, was not to eat and drink. In fact there is not a single command to eat in the two passages (three verses) where Christ says ‘do this in remembrance…’ The meal is a consequence of the memorial, but the memorial itself involes doing what Christ did. I don’t want to repeat myself here, as I’ve already written about this in another discussion.
Don’t get me wrong , I am sticking with “in remembrance”. Just not sure how you go from “to remember” to “show forth His death til He returns in the attitude of Thanksgiving” to “in remembrance’’ being, " declaring you believe all the Church holds true.”
And where did I say that? What I said was that Eucharistic union (communion) with another person logically entails doctrinal unity, since Eucharistic union entail union with Christ, which in turn entails union with his Church (his Body), and with what Christ teaches. Thus it follows logically for the Roman Catholic Church to restrict communion in her masses to those who are in doctrinal union with her. And for particular Lutheran churches to restrict communion in their masses to those who are in doctrinal union with them. And that is the historic position.
Is the latter then more, by way of tradition ?
Well, yes, but so is the Biblical canon.
 
You might want to discuss the “other lung” comment with Pope Francis. He was specifically referring to the Eastern Orthodox church when I heard him say it. And as for Luther being “catholic,” he didn’t end up that way, after he broke from Rome, and his tirades against the pope and the cardinals certainly distinguish him from the Roman Catholic faith and fueled the protestant/evangelical view that the catholic church is the “whore of babylon.” And his veneration of Mary was specifically for his own devotion. He did not mandate that practice in orthodox Lutheran doctrine.

as far as the Lutheran church being many groups, there are several synods, (lke the Catholic church as many orders, but are of one church) such as ELCA, The Missouri Synod, which I attended for a short time (and they NEVER had the adoration of the Eucharist) and the Missouri Synod, among others, and none of them are particularly catholic. The Missouri Synod has gone over to the Hypercharismatic evangelical movement and they NEVER have the adoration of the eucharist. They are too busy speaking in tongues, doing holy dancing and all the other behavior that accompanies that form of worship.
 
You might want to discuss the “other lung” comment with Pope Francis. He was specifically referring to the Eastern Orthodox church when I heard him say it. And as for Luther being “catholic,” he didn’t end up that way, after he broke from Rome, and his tirades against the pope and the cardinals certainly distinguish him from the Roman Catholic faith and fueled the protestant/evangelical view that the catholic church is the “whore of babylon.” And his veneration of Mary was specifically for his own devotion. He did not mandate that practice in orthodox Lutheran doctrine.
I beg your pardon, but I am unable to find Pope Francis making this statement. Its origin is a statement made by Pope St. John Paul the Great about the Eastern Catholic Churches, in the document Ut unum sint.

If Pope Francis has used the analogy for the Eastern Orthodox instead, I can’t find it. I get a lot of chaff about his medical condition, that is for sure.
 
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