Protestant teaching of Mary

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Is there some more practical meaning?
 
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mcq72 said:
Not sure anything is more “fuller” than the other.
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Because Jesus is human. The entirety of His person can only be found within that context, and saying “entering” without capturing that is to not fully understand just how intimate the relationship between Him and Mary is - that the entirety of Himself entered into her and dwelled within her for 9-10 months.

Mary was literally carrying God in the flesh in her womb. Have you ever done that? Have you ever, like the Ark of the Covenant, carried the presence of God within yourself? In fact, the Ark is an incomplete comparison, since Mary did not merely have the presence of God but literally had God dwelling physically inside of her. After all, it isn’t like Jesus became God after the resurrection and with His glorified body.

My comment was expressing concern that your comment about “entering” was not recognizing what really happened with Jesus’ conception. This wasn’t some “entering” as many Protestants understand it. The closest comparison we have today is in the Eucharist, where we receive Jesus’ body, blood, soul, and divinity.
mcq72 said:
Again His flesh was like yours or mine, not glorified, at the conception, so don’t see how it is greater than having the fullness of His Spirit inhabiting her or us.
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That doesn’t diminish from who He was at that time. He was still fully God and fully human.
mcq72 said:
for sure she was holy in God’s sight, set apart with the incarnation purpose, justified and sanctified by the gift of faith and obedience…I would consider that the greater glory and miracle, the perfection, the immaculateness that God makes graciously.
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Again, Catholics recognize that Mary was herself made pure by God’s grace and that she responded appropriately through faith and obedience. We also recognize that it was quite a significant event as she cooperated with God in receiving Christ. None of that indicates she wasn’t kept free from sin throughout her life.
mcq72 said:
I think to go beyond that by declaring a different perfection and immaculateness, or declaring a sinless life, or ever virgin detracts from said grace in this dispensational time.
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On the contrary, it magnifies the grace, since God outpoured grace to her to save her from original sin and save her from committing sin. He saved her in a way we hope to be saved. While He dealt with her in the matter differently, He also used her in a far more magnificent way than He has any other created being.

The immaculate conception does not, in any way, indicate Mary was not in need of a savior or God’s grace. She experienced in a unique way, in accordance with her unique purpose.
Onthisrock84 said:
How can anyone possibly know that?

Seriously think about it. How do any of us know what God wants? We don’t. Anyone who claims they do are lying to themselves.
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What about my comment are you talking about? Are you sure you responded to the right person?
 
Well, my biblist friend, how many children did God, via Gabriel say Mary would have?

“A Son” Singular.

How many children did God via Gabriel say Elizabeth would have?

A son. Singular again.

Christ fulfilled numerous prophesies, right? Actually, He had to fulfill all of them and all of them completely or He is not the Messiah, right?

Correct.

Have you not read the Messianic prophecy in Zechariah 12:10?
On David’s clan, on all the citizens of Jerusalem, I will pour out a
gracious spirit of prayer; towards me they shall look,
me whom they have pierced through. Lament for him they must, and
grieve bitterly; never was such lament for an only son, grief so bitter over first-born dead.
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Only Son. Firstborn dead.

The bible puts the lie to all unholy speculation that Mary was common and had a house full of other children - after vowing to God via Gabriel that she was the handmaid/bond slave of her Son. Per that Divine Son, how many masters may a slave serve?

Hint: One.

OK, so don’t be Catholic! Fine!

But don’t make stuff up in an attempt to show that Christ’s Church got it wrong.

Not convinced? Find a complete, unedited bible - you know, one with 73 books. Read the Book of Tobit. in it, you see that a man married a wife from his own tribe of the twelve tribes of Israel. So?

He called her “sister”! Why is this? Not what you are thinking. She was from the same tribe - perhaps a distant relative. To wit:
Tobit 7:16 And Rag′uel called his wife Edna and said to her,
“Sister, make up the other room, and take her into it.”

Tobit 8:9 "Thou, Lord, art my witness that I wed this
sister of mine not from love of dalliance; only in the dear hope of
leaving a race behind me, a race in whose destiny, Lord, may thy name be
ever blessed!
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Those who are handicapped by bible alone are missing so much of the faith - the richness, the clarity. Struggling along in confusion, they argue incessantly about the meaning of all things.

Christ did not leave us orphans!
 
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mcq72 said:
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po18guy:
Struggling along in confusion, they argue incessantly about the meaning of all things.
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Yet what two holy orders argued incessantly over some Marian doctrine?
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But submitted?
 
To divide into 224 known US denominations?

The Holy Spirit does not and cannot do that.

The Paraclete leads us to humble submission and unity - always and everywhere.
 
I been 'splaining for many, many years why it isn’t useful, as the folks who know nothing of the usual source try to use it.

And the beat goes on
 
po18guy said:
To divide into 224 known US denominations?

The Holy Spirit does not and cannot do that.

The Paraclete leads us to humble submission and unity - always and everywhere.
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I am wondering if you would mind explaining why you do not capitalize bible when referring to the Holy Bible? Also, if you could explain the use of the words “buy-bull”. Does it contain any other material meaning or is it actually just meant as a slur? That is how it comes across and I have a hard time seeing how so any of your comments reflect what you stated above " the Paraclete leads us to humble submission and unity - always an everywhere. "
 
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