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Stephen was “pleres charitos”–full of grace as any Christian is who has been baptized and has not sinned.What about Stephen who was also “full of grace”? (Acts 6:8) Was he also sinless and immaculately conceived?
Regarding Mary:
In Luke 1:28 the word that the angel uses is kecharitomene. So its not literally “full of grace” but its root word is the Greek verb “to give grace” (charitoo). The word is the past perfect tense, thus it means that the action of giving grace has already occurred. It was not something that was about to happen to her, but something that has already been accomplished. The word was also used as a title. The angel did not say, “Hail Mary you are kecharitomene,” but rather, “Hail kecharitomene.” Therefore the word is not simply an action but an identity.
It is thus difficult to translate because it is a unique use of the word. It has been translated by various scholars as full of grace, graced one, one who has been made graced, highly graced, and highly favored. In the last instance the translator is using the concept that to be graced by God is to find favor with God. It would appear that any translation should use the word “grace” because that is the root word, however it might sound “clunky” to some, they might think “highly favored” is more title sounding than “full of grace” and there is nothing inherently incorrect theologically about asserting that Mary was favored by God. I would consider the Immaculate Conception to be proof that Mary was favored by God.
Because of the familiarity people have with the Hail Mary prayer and the connotation that Protestant translators use “highly favored” to deny Catholic dogmas, the Lectionary for use at Mass still uses the term “Hail full of grace!” However neither is technically an incorrect translation.–Fr. Charles Grondin