Protestant View of Mariology

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Well, it is the Roman Church that propagated all those dogmas and approved all those apparitions. The Eastern Catholic Churches were never involved in them.
Again, why don’t you call my church the Catholic Church? :confused:Those dogmas have nothing to do with what you claimed. They werte never involved because the apparitions did not take place in the Orthodox aka Catholic Church.

“Roman Church has either tip-toed the line of fully crossed it between veneration and worship.”

Completely false!!! 👍 You know better than to suggest that the CC teaches their flock to worship Mary. You sound like a protestant. :eek: Some, not all…
 
You sound surprised that I would imply that. Interesting.

Not necessarily. This unique event may have come with the angel, as it were. The reality of my point is that God’s will is fulfilled in this way, regardless of the timing, which is not revealed to us in scripture.

Jon
Hey Jon. I think it is kind of telling when the angel greets her as fully graced as opposed to Mary, but that is just me. 🙂 In the end I suppose the final call on the matter should always be the church, regardless of denomination. 👍
 
I didn’t say the angel did it. I said this gift of grace happened at that time.

Jon
Hey, so the angel didn’t do it? :rotfl: Free Gabriel “innocent” I follow, that’s the point Scotus argues Gods perfection would not have allowed this. It was preventative maintenance not road side rescue, Hail Mary you made it, let me fix this flat, and of course She responded with an affirmative yes being in the breakdown lane?
 
These comments are disconnected from the basic ideas of original sin and the IC in the CC. This should help.
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=10898801&postcount=95

As to the what if?
:rolleyes: What is, she said no even after the angels in heaven recognized her at the Entrance into the temple? What is she changed her mind after the Annunciation? Really?
But isn’t the IC granted to Mary because she was destined to be the Theotokos? Yes or no.
 
Again, why don’t you call my church the Catholic Church? :confused:Those dogmas have nothing to do with what you claimed. They werte never involved because the apparitions did not take place in the Orthodox aka Catholic Church.

“Roman Church has either tip-toed the line of fully crossed it between veneration and worship.”

Completely false!!! 👍 You know better than to suggest that the CC teaches their flock to worship Mary. You sound like a protestant. :eek: Some, not all…
I’m being lazy, “Roman Catholic Church” is too long. Unless someone else things I’m referring to any other Church in Rome if I say “Roman Church”.

I’m not saying the Roman Church openly teaches to worship Mary, but the current state of praxis have lead so many to cross that line.
 
And the Immaculate Conception also shows that Mary was especially created by God the Father to be the Mother of His Divine Son through the Holy Spirit.

If not, then why was Mary chosen to be the Mother of God and not any other woman???

What made Mary special or favored??
Well, we can agree that everyone was born with roles to play in God’s plan. But to afford her a privilege before she is even given a chance to fulfill this role?
 
I’m being lazy, “Roman Catholic Church” is too long. Unless someone else things I’m referring to any other Church in Rome if I say “Roman Church”.

I’m not saying the Roman Church openly teaches to worship Mary, but the current state of praxis have lead so many to cross that line.
👍🙂
 
But isn’t the IC granted to Mary because she was destined to be the Theotokos? Yes or no.
The word destined may, but does not necessarily imply a lack of of choice or even free will.
One could equally ask: After the Annunciation, was the Theotokos destined to give birth to Christ?
 
Well, we can agree that everyone was born with roles to play in God’s plan. But to afford her a privilege before she is even given a chance to fulfill this role?
I think the idea that Mary, the mother of God, was part of the redemptive plan long before her earthly existence is kind of cool…🤷 She was certainly predestined, from God’s perspective, to be the mother of God. Why couldn’t this include her IC, logically speaking? I of course understand why you do not believe it from the teaching perspective of the Orthodox Church.
 
The word destined may, but does not necessarily imply a lack of of choice or even free will.
One could equally ask: After the Annunciation, was the Theotokos destined to give birth to Christ?
👍 She might not have been privy to the information, regarding her destiny, prior to being visited by the angel. Some of this stuff, if you over analyze it can make the concepts seem impossible to grasp. Mary was destined to be the mother of God, long before creation was created by God. Now some would suggest that this affected her free will i.e. she had no free will in terms of her fiat. The same logic could be applied the Mary’s IC. I think that is Constantine’s point - again I think? 🤷
 
I’ve already mentioned it so many times. Do I have to repeat it again?
Please. I forgot. It happens…I do not believe that Mary (in order to be saved by God) needed to wait until Jesus’ work on the cross. Those OT folks would be in deep you-know-what if that was the case. LOL…
 
I think the idea that Mary, the mother of God, was part of the redemptive plan long before her earthly existence is kind of cool…🤷 She was certainly predestined, from God’s perspective, to be the mother of God. Why couldn’t this include her IC, logically speaking? I of course understand why you do not believe it from the teaching perspective of the Orthodox Church.
Sure, God plans well ahead of time. We can even say as much that God knew that Adam and Eve would disobey even before He created them. But the IC removes original sin, which is the effect of Adam’s sin. So it creates so many problems.

#1 Is Mary already saved? Because she is not fallen, therefore she is saved (by God of course). So then free will is not needed for salvation?
#2 If God can exempt one being from original sin, why not exempt all? Why let us all suffer in this world if He can will us out of original sin? Is God sadistic?
 
Sure, God plans well ahead of time. We can even say as much that God knew that Adam and Eve would disobey even before He created them. But the IC removes original sin, which is the effect of Adam’s sin. So it creates so many problems.

#1 Is Mary already saved? Because she is not fallen, therefore she is saved (by God of course). So then free will is not needed for salvation?
#2 If God can exempt one being from original sin, why not exempt all? Why let us all suffer in this world if He can will us out of original sin? Is God sadistic?
It does not remove original sin. It was a one-time exception for the new Eve. The answer to number 2 is obvious: Mary, unlike the rest of us, was to play a rather unique role in the salvation of the world. I am sure if God wanted to God could have allowed original sin (something you do not believe) to remain a part of Mary’s earthly life, but God did not as per the CC. According the EOC aka CC, God did. it will all come out in the wash for each of us one day.

There are quite a few questions that I would love to ask God, but I cannot. 🤷
 
👍 She might not have been privy to the information, regarding her destiny, prior to being visited by the angel. Some of this stuff, if you over analyze it can make the concepts seem impossible to grasp. Mary was destined to be the mother of God, long before creation was created by God. Now some would suggest that this affected her free will i.e. she had no free will in terms of her fiat. The same logic could be applied the Mary’s IC. I think that is Constantine’s point - again I think? 🤷
I think that may be his point, although if you are confused about it, and I am confused about it, perhaps the culpa is not with us?

At any rate, we know that being free from original sin does not remove any free will from the creature.

Not sure how one is related to the other, in CTG’s perception?
 
Sure, God plans well ahead of time. We can even say as much that God knew that Adam and Eve would disobey even before He created them. But the IC removes original sin, which is the effect of Adam’s sin. So it creates so many problems.

#1 Is Mary already saved? Because she is not fallen, therefore she is saved (by God of course). So then free will is not needed for salvation?
Is she “saved”? Sounds like a question that a Protestant would ask. The Catholic encyclopedia article on original sin makes it clear that the effect of the IC is to remedy the separation from God and deprivation of grace incurred through the Fall. It does not mean that she was exempted from death, from suffering, from concupiscence. It does not mean a lack of free will (consider Eve). I suspect, however that it could be construed that it means that she was “destined” for Sainthood.

#2 If God can exempt one being from original sin, why not exempt all? Why let us all suffer in this world if He can will us out of original sin? Is God sadistic?
Why continue to penalize humanity with suffering and death? Why wait so many generations to send a Savior?

Why question God’s plan?
 
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