Is that what I’m saying? I don’t think that’s what I was saying.
I’m saying that your question supposes that it must be in the bible to be valid. I disagree. For it to be valid, the Church must teach it is valid. It does not need to be in the bible, so long as annulment doesn’t contradict what is explicitly stated in the bible, which it doesn’t, and that the Church has authority to determine it, which it does.
Wannano:
When was the Catholic annulment first instituted?
I dunno. And admittedly it doesn’t matter to me as it isn’t relevant to anything.