O
otjm
Guest
The very definition of a decree of nullity does no such thing. You are confusing two issues: a civil contract with a religious sacrament.You’re putting lipstick on a pig!
The RCC is against divorce, agreed. The very definition of annulment testifies to the fact the marriage took place. So if the marriage was deemed valid when consummated, regardless the reason, the CC should not be granting annulments. However they do. Speaking with others regarding this, no one could think any instance where a couple wasn’t granted an annulment. In some instances it took longer than a year, but it was eventually nullified.
A decree of nullity says absolutely nothing about what may or may not have been a civil contract. It only says that the requirements for a sacrament were not present at the time the individuals or one of them made an attempt to cause (confect) a sacrament (to occur). The marriage was not “deemed” valid, rather, it was “presumed” valid. There is a difference between those two words. Consumation does not cause the sacrement; rather, it ratifies it; but consumation can only ratify a sacrament that actually occured. If no sacrament occured, there may be “consumation” (sexual congress) but it ratifies nothing.
I don’t know who you spoke with, but there are approximately 8% of those who are Catholic and divorced who have either had a finding by the tribunal that the marriage is valid, or have not gone to the point of a finding (most usually because there is insufficient evidence). The fact that you have made a minor sampling does not provve anything other than that within your sample, you found no evidence.
And if you can’t find any examples, try Sheila Kennedy - her case was spread all over the news at various times, especially when the Rota made the decidion that the case had been imporperly decided at the tribunal level.