T
Third_Day
Guest
On another thread there was the discussion about Protestants and unbelievers and whether or not they can commit a mortal sin since it is possible that they do not have full knowledge of mortal sin as do Catholics and can therefore claim invincible ignorance and not be held culpable
It seems to me that “Invincible” ignorance is over used.
Why did Pius IX use the word “invincible” to begin with? He could have just said those who are ignorant. It seems to me that he chose invincible to show how narrow this exception really is.
Invincible is something that cannot be penetrated like an invincible fortress. Few people will remain ignorant when presented with the truth unless they freely choose to. Just because you believe that once you are saved you are saved doesn’t mean that you are immune from damnation because you really didn’t know you were committing a mortal sin.
I would like to discuss this scripture from Jude 1:7
“……Just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise acted immorally and indulged in unnatural lust, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire.”
If anyone could claim invincible ignorance it would be these people. This was before Jesus Christ. This was before the Ten Commandments. This was before missionaries brought the gospel YET somehow these people had “full “knowledge and knew they were committing a “grave” offense and did it willingly.
Yet today many believe that Protestants and others (and even ignorant Catholics) are saved because they are somehow invincibly ignorant, in other words, through no fault of their own they don’t know they are committing a grave sin.
How is that possible when Jude tells us the punishment of Sodom and surrounding cities was as an example to us? How could they be punished with hell fire yet those living today are not culpable because, somehow, through no fault of their own they are not culpable?
It seems to me that “Invincible” ignorance is over used.
Why did Pius IX use the word “invincible” to begin with? He could have just said those who are ignorant. It seems to me that he chose invincible to show how narrow this exception really is.
Invincible is something that cannot be penetrated like an invincible fortress. Few people will remain ignorant when presented with the truth unless they freely choose to. Just because you believe that once you are saved you are saved doesn’t mean that you are immune from damnation because you really didn’t know you were committing a mortal sin.
I would like to discuss this scripture from Jude 1:7
“……Just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise acted immorally and indulged in unnatural lust, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire.”
If anyone could claim invincible ignorance it would be these people. This was before Jesus Christ. This was before the Ten Commandments. This was before missionaries brought the gospel YET somehow these people had “full “knowledge and knew they were committing a “grave” offense and did it willingly.
Yet today many believe that Protestants and others (and even ignorant Catholics) are saved because they are somehow invincibly ignorant, in other words, through no fault of their own they don’t know they are committing a grave sin.
How is that possible when Jude tells us the punishment of Sodom and surrounding cities was as an example to us? How could they be punished with hell fire yet those living today are not culpable because, somehow, through no fault of their own they are not culpable?