Well explain how can Jesus become sin if he was not made to have sinfull flesh as this peice states?
“For he hath made him (Jesus) to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” 2 Corinthians 5:21
This is a very good question, and one of the great mysteries of our faith. It has not been revealed to us how it is that Jesus was able to bear our sins on the cross. However, it has been revealed that He had no sin. He was the pure and spotless lamb without blemish, and that is what makes Him qualified to be the perfect sacrifice.
Here is another one to show that I am not just nit picking scriptures or taking them out of context. “As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:” Romans 3:10
But in other places, it states that there are righteous. Paul is making comparisons here between Jews and Gentiles. He is saying that there are faithless Jews, just as there are faithless Gentiles, and that both will fall into the pit unless they come to believe in Him.
“But the scripture hath concluded all under sin…” Galatians 3:22
This is a reference to original sin. Jesus did not have original sin. His Mother was cleansed of it at the moment of her conception, so that she could give her flesh to the One Who would give it for the life of the world.
Why would somebody say they needed a savior if she was sinless? “And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord, And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.” Luke 1:46-47
When we say she was sinless, we mean that she did not commit personal sin. God saved her from original sin. We are all saved from original sin in baptism, but we still may commit personal sins if we fail to walk in grace.
Verify this one to me??? “The Church’ s devotion to the Blessed Virgin is intrinsic to Christian worship.” Pg. 253, #971
The Church has always honored Mary, the mother of Jesus. We are devoted to her as our role model, and as our spiritual mother. Christ gave her to us as Mother when she stood at the foot of His cross.
Also, are we sure that the full of grace means sinlessness?
Do you think it is possible to commit sins when one full of grace?
My NIB and many others which are catholic in nature say highly favored? Also, there is a difference in the greek meaning when Jesus is called full of grace and truth. Therefore, how can we conclude the same rendering?
The Gk. word is peculiar to this passage. It is not used anywhere else.
Charitoo: akin to charis, to endow with charis, primarily signified to make graceful or gracious, and came to denote, in Hellenistic Greek, to cause to find favour, Luke 1:28, “highly favoured” (margin, “endued with grace”) . . . Grace implies more than favour; grace is a free gift, favour may be deserved or gained" (An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, by W.E. Vine).
- If they want to use “full of grace” it still should be rendered as “having been filled with grace” (again a perfect, passive, participle).
- They would then have to render Eph 1:6 as:
to [the] praise of the glory of His grace, by which He filled us with grace in the Beloved,
The point is, no matter what the translation, whatever is said of Mary MUST be true of all other believers as well. So translate as they will they can’t evade the fact that nothing is said of Mary that is not also said of all other believers.
Why? why cannot God do something with one person that He does not do with another? Scripture says that Enoch walked with God, and was taken up to heaven. Does it say this about anyone else? Moses is called the “friend” of God, and God related to him differently than anyone else.
It is true, though, that Mary is the example of what God wants to accomplish in all of us. The difference with Mary is that she was created like Eve, without a sin nature.
So if Luke 1:28 somehow “proves” Mary is sinless and immaculately conceived, then so are all believers. The first IS true; we are sinless as a result of being forgiven in Christ, but we weren’t born that way, and neither was Mary.
I would not say that Luke 1:28 “proves” anything. It is a reflection of the Apostolic Teaching, just like the rest of the NT.
The Church also teaches that John was born without original sin, as He was baptized by the HS when Mary’s greeting sounded in Elizabeth’s ears. it is not up to you to determine that something God does for one person must be alike for all. that is up to God.
Code:
I personally love Mary and all other saints to whom and through whom have demonstrated his power and glory so that all may no the one true God. However, God is not partial with whom he loves. He dosen't withhold Glory from others the word of God teaches this even in the Old testament which came first the NT but fulfills it.
God loves all that He creates, but He does not relate to everyone the same. He loves those who choose not to follow Him, too, but he has a very different relationship with those who have been washed in His blood. His grace is available to all, but not all respond, and not all those that respond do so to the same degree. He has different gifts and callings for each. We are equal in dignity, but not equal in other areas. On the contrary, to each is given a measure of the Spirit for the common good. He distributes gifts differing as He wills.