H
humble_in_doubt
Guest
of course I’m citing St. Thomas Aquinas and St. Augustine … not John Calvin. So my response is huh?Here’s my response to that comment.
of course I’m citing St. Thomas Aquinas and St. Augustine … not John Calvin. So my response is huh?Here’s my response to that comment.
There are so many errors in this post, it is hard to know where to begin. First of all, Catholicism is not “Roman”. Second, Catholics certainly CAN know that they have eternal life. Although we cannot know that we will remain in a state of grace until death, there are countless opportunties to enter and remain in a state of grace daily. Eternal life is intended to begin right now, not just after death. Each time we participate in Mass we participate in the eternal life purchased for us by Christ on the Cross.According to Rome one cannot know if he/she has eternal life. But according to the Scriptures one can know (Jn. 3:14-18; 5:24; 1 Jn. 5:9-13). That’s the difference between a works based religion and a Biblically based FAITH. The “narrow gate” is by grace through faith in Jesus Christ alone. Salvation is for those who believe.
But Francis, Calvin did not believe in free will. And secondly, although faith demarcates the people of God (can you please capitalize the “G” you use to do so before) it is not sufficient enough to save us (we need baptism too). I can have therefore faith in God (his word) but it is dead and useless if I am not righteous. Look at the Pharisees and the Saduccees of Jesus’s time.I’m not sure Calvin (or Augustine) would say non-believers are incapable of being good in an objective sense (since obviously we know from common experience they are). They would say without faith no one is good in the eyes of god (and obviously to a theologian good is described from god’s standpoint, not our own).
That’s why faith demarcates the people of god according to scripture, not merely good behavior. Good behavior is witness to a sincere faith, but it must be accompanied by a profession of faith. The end result of Calvinist and Catholic theology is the same. Faith and good behavior/good works are the seal of a Christian. They simply approach it differently (although if Catholics were intellectually honest & this issue wasn’t tainted by the bad blood generated by the reformation, they would see how similar Calvin, Augustine, and Aquinas really were on the topic of predestination and grace).
The fact is the modern church has taken the side of John Wesley, Jacob Arminius, and reaching back further in history arguably also Justin Martyr and Boethius (although I’ve read reformed theologians who believe Justin Martyr held a view more akin to Calvin, but I read Martyr’s works & I think that assertion is frankly absurd).
I read the essay on TULIP (from the Catholic perspective) & I was impressed quite frankly. It’s intellectually honest & heck everyone here should read it. It acknowledges that Aquinas and Calvin were in virtual harmony on predestination. Everything from unconditional election to irresistible grace was taught by Augustine and then Aquinas.Here’s my response to that comment.
wrong … he fully affirmed human free will. Moreover, everything you say here is true, but Calvin wouldn’t disagree. However, Calvin would say the righteousness of the Christian is from god, not from ourselves (as humans are incapable of godly righteousness and holiness). I’m not even sure the RCC would disagree with this concept (it’s just that many lay Catholics don’t seem to understand theology well, at least in my experience).But Francis, Calvin did not believe in free will. And secondly, although faith demarcates the people of God (can you please capitalize the “G” you use to do so before) it is not sufficient enough to save us (we need baptism too). I can have therefore faith in God (his word) but it is dead and useless if I am not righteous. Look at the Pharisees and the Saduccees of Jesus’s time.
You are separating baptism from faith, and this is an error. Baptism cannot be given apart from a profession of faith. Baptism seals us in the HS with the circumcision made without hands. This is a supernatural act that occurs by grace, through faith. It seems important for you, for some reason, to deny the actions of the HS in baptism. I can only surmise that you must do this to deny the sacramental nature of the church.None of these verses teach that Christ claims anyone for Himself through baptism. All the above verses pertain to those who have believed in the Person and sacrificial work of Jesus Christ. IOW, they’re revealed truths that pertain to the saved “by grace through faith,” not those baptized in infancy. You can baptize an unbeliever (or an infant) all day long and he/she wouldn’t be any closer to salvation at the end of the day than at the beginning.
The Catholic Church is not “Roman”, moon. Your statements seem to indicate a gross lack of understanding about the nature of baptism.Nowhere is it taught in the Scriptures that Christ claims anyone through baptism. Rome might lay claim to him, but heaven doesn’t “know” him.
You truly are humble, Francis!I read the essay on TULIP (from the Catholic perspective) & I was impressed quite frankly. It’s intellectually honest & heck everyone here should read it. It acknowledges that Aquinas and Calvin were in virtual harmony on predestination. Everything from unconditional election to irresistible grace was taught by Augustine and then Aquinas.
The only real apparent disagreement is in the P of TULIP (or perseverance of the saints). However, even the disagreement here is a matter of obscure nuance (and frankly I’m not sure if in this area the author of the essay described the Calvinist view exactly right).
Perseverance of the saints cannot be compared to OSAS (or once saved always saved). Under OSAS I would still be considered saved, but under the soteriology of Calvin my rejection of faith is witness of my rebrobation (unless I come back to Christ later in life and die in a “state of grace”). All Calvin is saying is the elect will persevere (how can the elect not persevere?). For the most part reformed protestants will never say we can know the identity of the elect (this is a point the article misses). They will say if you have a sincere faith you can have confidence in your status with god (but you must still remain always diligent in your faith).
Frankly differences between Catholics and confessional protestants (i.e. Lutherans, Presbyterians, Reformed Christians, etc.) have diminished considerably over time. For instance the RCC and Lutheran churches signed a joint declaration on justification in 2000. The differences now, practically speaking, focus on the use of icons in worship, saintly and Marian veneration, etc. Even very Catholic doctrines like real presence and baptismal grace find a warm reception among many protestants (with the exception of groups like Pentecostals and Baptists). Some might be surprised to learn neither Calvin or Luther had a problem with perpetual virginity (however, they did have a problem with the idea of Mary as a co-redeemer and venerating saints).
Anyways … good article, thanks!
Well, Francis I’m confused why is it that every article I’ve read about Calvin claims he only believed in a sin-enslaved will (total depravity)?wrong … he fully affirmed human free will. Moreover, everything you say here is true, but Calvin wouldn’t disagree. However, Calvin would say the righteousness of the Christian is from god, not from ourselves (as humans are incapable of godly righteousness and holiness). I’m not even sure the RCC would disagree with this concept (it’s just that many lay Catholics don’t seem to understand theology well, at least in my experience).
Here’s a link that PRmerger provided:
catholic.com/thisrock/1993/9309fea1.asp
Also, once again here’s a link to a newadvent.org article on Aquinas’ view on predestination:
newadvent.org/summa/1023.htm
If you’re interested, here’s a link to a pretty good article on Calvin’s view of predestination:
fordham.edu/halsall/mod/calvin-predest.html
All Catholic or credible non-biased sources. Happy reading Josie![]()
Yes, I acknowledge that God planned (foreordained) (cf. 1 Peter 1:17-21) to send Christ because of His foreknowledge that Adam would disobey His command and lose salvation for himself and all his progeny. And since God made mankind in His image and likeness and desired for mankind to spend eternity in heaven with Him, He needed to have a way that this eternal fellowship could still be accomplished (the death of His own Son was needed in order to atone for Adam’s sin) in spite of the first man’s free will choice. God is Love and God is Mercy and God is Justice. God loves all His creation. He does not desire for it to be destroyed.You acknowledge that god always planned to send Christ right? Take the Jonah story. Jonah is instructed by god to go and preach to the gentile city of Nineveh. Yet Jonah initially refuses, but god arranges it so Jonah is swallowed up by a fish and taken to Nineveh anyway (where he sees the light and agrees to do god’s bidding).
Much is “prefigured” in Scripture. It teaches us by “repetition” and prepares us for the “MAJOR” event. Salvation is not possible for anyone at all without the mercy of God. It is true that God extends more mercy to some over others, but since He is Love, and Justice, and Mercy, He extends enough mercy to each person in order for them to be saved since their salvation is His own desire. He subjects His own desire for their salvation to their own free will actions by His Sovereign will. To some persons He extends more grace, yet each person receives enough grace to be saved. Pharaoh could have been saved also. Attributing the “hardening of Pharaoh’s heart” to God is a Semitic manner of speaking. It was actually God’s favor towards the Israelites which caused jealousy in Pharaoh’s heart and he chose to harden his own heart. So, God’s mercy towards Israel hardened Pharaoh’s jealous heart against the Israelites. It was Pharaoh’s own jealousy, not God, which hardened his heart.Do you see the parallel. Three days in the belly of a fish, or in an abyss, to emerge and preach salvation to the gentiles? Obviously these sort of Old Testament stories were designed to prefigure Christ (indeed Peter and Paul would commonly point to these parallels to make their case that Jesus was the Christ, or the messiah). This idea goes right back to god’s initial promises to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. As you cite below yes according to the bible god did always plan to expand salvation to include a group taken from all peoples; however, when I read 1 Peter 2 or Romans 9 it’s clear to me that predestination is not something determined by the foreseen merit of individual men. BTW both Augustine and Aquinas agree with me (so I’m on a pretty solid theological footing).
“God gets what He wants” because He knew what the consequences would be if He gave people free will choice and He knew this before He gave it to them. He knew that once He gave people free will that some of them would then reject Him. This does not mean that His original “desire for all men to be saved” was not a worthy desire. It just means that if you give one thing as a free gift, another thing cannot always also be given. For instance, if you marry one person, then by default, you cannot morally marry another at the same time. When free will is given as a gift, this gift can be misused and it will be misused since some persons will not choose the good when given “choice.”you’re being overly simplistic. Sure the bible does say that god desires all men to be saved, yet it also states all men will not be saved. So you’re caught in a dilemma. Does this mean god doesn’t always get what he wants? Can man circumvent the will of god? How many times and in how many different places does the bible state god’s will shall always be done? Too many to count right (well maybe not too many to count, I just don’t feel like doing the counting right now). So how do you resolve these “universalist” passages? Will everyone be saved regardless of whether we want it or not, or whether we believe in god or not? Then why would anyone bother being religious?
Does your church teach that people by their own faculties and only their own faculties are morally able to choose to follow God? If so, can you quote a council or paragraph from the CCC that substantiates this?People are not by nature inclined to love God with their whole heart, mind, or strength, but rather all are inclined to serve their own interests over those of their neighbor and to reject the rule of God. Thus, all people by their own faculties are morally unable to choose to follow God and be saved because they are unwilling to do so out of the necessity of their own natures. (The term “total” in this context refers to sin affecting every part of a person, not that every person is as evil as possible.)
His elect are determined according to His foreknowledge.So obviously the idea that god wants all men to be saved or doesn’t take pleasure in the destruction of anyone are benevolent statements by god. It’s not even that god has two wills. It isn’t even that god’s purpose lies in the destruction of anyone, god’s purpose as described by scripture is purely salvation. However, it’s solely in salvation of his predetermined elect. Even Jesus didn’t pray for the world, he only prayed for those the father gave him.
I disagree. God does not simply mean “all types” of people without exclusion. He truly is not willing that “any” of us should perish. He desires that we “all” repent and be saved.the idea that god shows no partiality means all types of people without exclusion, not all people without exception. This is clearly the context that passage was written in. Moreover, the Christian cannot view god’s elective choices as arbitrary, because then you commit the fallacy of juxtaposing your intuitive sense of justice unto god (as if finite man has any basis or intellectual capacity to question divine justice).
No it doesn’t.Does your church teach that people by their own faculties and only their own faculties are morally able to choose to follow God? If so, can you quote a council or paragraph from the CCC that substantiates this?
If that’s the case, and I think you are correct, you as a Catholic shouldn’t have much problem with total depravity or maybe better stated as you pointed out as total inability.No it doesn’t.
405 Although it is proper to each individual,295 original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.If that’s the case, and I think you are correct, you as a Catholic shouldn’t have much problem with total depravity or maybe better stated as you pointed out as total inability.
May God bless Memaw he needs all the help he/she can get.I am glad your just a trial member cuz people like you leave a sad feeling in us faithful Catholic’s hearts. You had it and you blew it. To bad, to sad. Its never to late to come back!!! God Bless, Memaw
The Catholic Church is not “Roman”, moon. This is taught all over the world in the Catholic Church, and is from the Apostles, not “Rome”. Rome became a doctrinal center for the faith because of the teaching of the Apostles that occurred there.Rome teaches its members that no one can know if they have eternal life. Why is this?
What am I supposed to understand from all of the above?405 Although it is proper to each individual,295 original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.
406 The Church’s teaching on the transmission of original sin was articulated more precisely in the fifth century, especially under the impulse of St. Augustine’s reflections against Pelagianism, and in the sixteenth century, in opposition to the Protestant Reformation. Pelagius held that man could, by the natural power of free will and without the necessary help of God’s grace, lead a morally good life; he thus reduced the influence of Adam’s fault to bad example. The first Protestant reformers, on the contrary, taught that original sin has radically perverted man and destroyed his freedom; they identified the sin inherited by each man with the tendency to evil (concupiscentia), which would be insurmountable. The Church pronounced on the meaning of the data of Revelation on original sin especially at the second Council of Orange (529)296 and at the Council of Trent (1546).297
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p1s2c1p7.htm
That Catholics do not use the term “total depravity”. Rather, because of the fall of Adam, man cannot do anything out of supernatural love unless God gives him special grace to do so.What am I supposed to understand from all of the above?
I agree with you.That Catholics do not use the term “total depravity”. Rather, because of the fall of Adam, man cannot do anything out of supernatural love unless God gives him special grace to do so.
Well, then, you’re one step closer to coming Home!I agree with you.