M
Matariel
Guest
Oh, so you think Christ is not omnipotent? He can be physically present in as many places as He wants-- He’s God incarnate.Show me one time where Jesus’s body, in human form, was at more than one place at a time…all the examples you gave below only prove my point.
Some of our saints God blessed and they experienced bilocation.
This is funny coming from you, since you’re the one walking away in disbelief (“What, Jesus commands us to eat Him? Nah, He can’t possibly be talking about literally eating Him!”Like the crowd that went away in disbelief, you do the same.
You have as yet to refute the fact that trogo, the Greek word used for eat in John 6 is never used in a symbolic way anywhere in the Bible or in Greek secular literature of that time. That alone should make you rethink what you’ve been taught.
And the fact that, “to eat one’s flesh and drink one’s blood” in Jewish culture, if taked non-literally, and taken metaphorically (like you suggest) it means to slander and culminate against. If He was speaking metaphorically as you say, Jesus is saying “Unless you slander and culminate against Me, you have no life in you.”
And we all know that’s nonsensical, so odviously the Catholic position on this is correct.
Why do you just make claims about Scripture without even showing any evidence to support your claim?The repetition you refer to is throughout Scripture because John 6 is the salvation message.
If Christ knew the majority of people would interpret it that way, why’d He say it? Wouldn’t He want to ensure that they understood exactly what they meant? He did! He used words and language to ensure that they understood-- that He was speaking of mystically partaking of Him (afterall, in the OT the sacrafice was always consumed afterwards, and was not considered complete until it had been eaten)-- and that’s why they walked away, just as the majority of Protestants since their beginning in the 1500’s have walked away. :nope:Literal eating of Jesus is not. Only in the minds of the “many”.