I don’t really understand why these different arguments within Mariology are so important. Catholics ferociously defend them, and many Protestants go out of their way to argue against them.
And with that last part, you hit on why we defend them, because they are attacked. We hold them because they are true
Luther’s position was this: “I believe in the immaculate conception and the semper virgo, but there isn’t enough scriptural evidence to bind people’s salvation to a belief in these doctrines.”
The immaculate conception: It’s certainly not impossible (although it does seem to require a lineage of immaculately conceived individuals.)
No offence, but your suggestion here is an attempt to look past the miricle. In order to believe this, you might as well start suggesting that Jesus being born god/man would have required a liniage of god/men.
I find it interesting that people believe that God could intervene with Mary’s conception to prevent the stain of original sin but couldn’t skip that step and just do the same directly for Jesus.
The question isn’t that God
couldn’t have done this. It’s that if he
didn’t God and sin would co-exist for a period of 9 months at least. More over it would bring up the question of how, exactly, God would go about inheriting his human nature from Mary
with out inheriting sin in anyway. Could God have done it as you describe? Well with God all things are possible. But is it rational that God would choose a completly miraculas means to put Jesus on earth? If God is going to go as far as you describe, why not just have him suddenly appear on earth as an adult? But then, at least in our minds, would we be able to accept that he was
fully and truely human?
This begs the question: if God made Mary, a mere mortal, to be born without original sin, why doesn’t he just do the same for all of us?
Because we inherit our nature from Adam, to erase original sin for everyone would require erasing all consequence (which we still live with) of Adam’s sin. To do that would mean erasing Adam’s free will, and our free will.
Regarding the semper virgo, why is it so critical that Mary had not slept with her husband? Even taking into account a belief in the immaculate conception, it’s not a sin to have children with one’s husband, so why exactly is it the subject of so much anger and frustration? I don’t think the scriptures are clear one way or the other. Both sides of the argument are convincing in my opinion. What I haven’t heard is a rationale as to why Mary had to be ever-virgin after Jesus’ birth.
Quite simply she did not, in fact there is actually little basis to believe that she
did other than some folks just have a very hard time wrapping their minds around the idea that some people could be married and not have relations. Well this was already common in Mary’s time, there were a host of consecrated virgins who married for protection, and never had relations.
It was the tradition of the early Church that those Priests who
were married at ordenation stopped having relations (permentently) with their spouse and lived as “brother and sister”. This is because such a tradition was already in place in Jeudism, where the preist would stop having relations durring the period of time which he was actually serving as Preist. The difference for
our Priests was, quite simply, that you
never cease to be fuctioning as a preist.
Assumption of Mary: This one is a little much. The earliest recorded accounts of this doctrine as far as I know (provided to me by a Catholic member on this forum) was from 390 AD.That’s pretty late to be developing ideas this radical. If anyone has earlier accounts of this, please do share, as I’m curious to learn more about it.
Probably the most difficult doctrine to accept, but as has been posted:
The most compelling reason is the lack of evidence. Christians from the start had an affinity for holy relics. When Constantine converted he sent his mother on a quest to locate as many holy relecs as could be found. She found the actual cross of the crusifixion, the lance that perices his side among other artifacts. Why has the Holy Mother been missing all this time? She lived with St. John, if she simply died St. John certainly would know where she was burried, as would St. Ireanus who was a direct deciple of John.
Why did no one think to take a relec of the Mother of God?
I hope this did not come across as judgmental. I’m open to belief in these doctrines of Mary, but I do find it a bit challenging given my Lutheran upbringing. I have just been somewhat flustered with how critical these beliefs seem to both sides of the debate.
Not at all, it came across as genuine.