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MrS
That would be 2 cor.5:8
That would be 2 cor.5:8
Well if you’re going to simply make the claim that Lucifer was elect without proof, then I’ll do the same.Howie:
Your doctrine claims that those who are ‘elect’ cannot be lost.
Yet, Lucifer, who was an elect of God was.
Hell was created for satan and his angels. Angels that were once elect sons of God and perfect are going there. How does this fit with your doctrine?
You read but you do not understand, so I’ll point it out yet again:Not so, e-man.
There’s a clear contrast set up in the verse: Those unclean continually practicing abominations and lies, will never, no not ever, enter the city BUT (here comes the contrast) Those whose names are written in the book will enter into the city.
By his own admission, Lewis is not a theologian.
Believers are cleansed from all sin by faith in Christ:
Titus 2:14
…who gave Himself for us to redeem us from every lawless deed, and to purify
FOR HIMSELF a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds.
”Purify,” Gr, katharidzō, “to cleanse,” stated in that verse in the aorist, active—a past, completed act by the subject; namely, Jesus, and that act reflexively: cleansed a people FOR HIMSELF.
His are already cleansed, by Him, and for Him.
You’re just repeating yourself, e-man.You read but you do not understand, so I’ll point it out yet again:
Revelation 21:27 “… and nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb’s book of life."
The text in RED (κοινός) is what I’m referring to. He ADDS to this, “and no one who practices abomination and lying, etc.”
He has ALREADY stated that NOTHING unclean (κοινός) shall enter. Nothing unclean means NOTHING unclean.
You’re reasoning a later developed doctrine to the scripture, rather than formulating doctrine by reasoning from the scripture.You have to do hermeneutical backflips to get around this.
Howie** –**You’re just repeating yourself, e-man.
Those whose names are written in the book, are not among those who practice abomination and lying, and their not among those who are unclean.
You say they’re not unclean because they’ve been purged in purgatory. You infer purgatory because your church teaches a doctrine of purgatory.
I say they’re not unclean because they’ve been cleansed by Christ, when they believed (Col 2:13-14; Heb 10:14). I reject purgatory because scripture says nothing about a place called “purgatory.”
When they die, believers go to Christ, immediately.
You’re reasoning a later developed doctrine to the scripture, rather than formulating doctrine by reasoning from the scripture.
No backflips at all.![]()
It’s not taught implicitly in scripture. But what is taught explicitly in Scripture is that Christ cleanses His from all unrighteousness, and from the guilt and penalty of sin, and that He has perfected them (Heb 10:14).Howie –
This is a silly argument. The word, “Purgatory” is not mentioned in scripture - so the doctrine of purgatory is false? As I’ve already pointed out, the word, “Trinity” is not in Scripture but that doesn’t mean the doctrine is false. For that matter, show me the word, “Bible” in the Bible.
The doctrine of Purgatory has been around as long as the Church because it IS taught in Scripture implicitly – just as the Trinity is taught implicitly – not explicitly. (2 Macc. 12:43–45, Matt. 12:32, 1 Cor 3:15, 1 Peter 3:19)
And I guess you didn’t post any support for that because I guess you’ve guessed that I’ve already read the support and have found it wanting. (Good guess.)The Early Church Fathers believed in and taught the Doctrine of Purgatory and praying for the dead: Clement of Alexandria, Origen, Abercius, Tertullian, Cyprian, Cyril of Jerusalem, John Chrysostom, Ambrose of Milan, Augustine, to name a few. But I guess you know more than they did.
Elvisman, the converse is also true; viz: your acceptance of a particular belief of the Church doesn’t make the belief true.Howie - just because you reject a particular belief of the Church doesn’t make it untrue.
It IS implicitly taught and I already gave you the verses - which you ignored.It’s not taught implicitly in scripture. But what is taught explicitly in Scripture is that Christ cleanses His from all unrighteousness, and from the guilt and penalty of sin, and that He has perfected them (Heb 10:14).
And I guess you didn’t post any support for that because I guess you’ve guessed that I’ve already read the support and have found it wanting. (Good guess.)
Elvisman, the converse is also true; viz: your acceptance of a particular belief of the Church doesn’t make the belief true.
I guess you missed or ignored my last post a few pages back. You might want to look it over. It most definitely is taught implicitly in Scripture.It’s not taught implicitly in Scripture. But what is taught explicitly in Scripture is that Christ cleanses His from all unrighteousness, and from the guilt and penalty of sin, and that He has perfected them (Heb 10:14).
I didn’t think I had to ask, but I put the scriptures for you to read and enboldened the parts I thought were interesting. And I’ll give you an explanation when you give me yours first. I thank you in advance.I don’t recall you asking me to deal with the Scriptures, and neither did you deal with them, but only posted them, but did make a short statement concerning the Heb 10 passage earlier in the thread to elvisman (that passage is a popular argument against eternal security). If you’d like to explain your reason for posting them, go ahead, and after you’ve done that, I’ll respond to them in kind.
I did answer your questions here.
What authority does the catholic church have to interpet the Bible as they do which is bordering on blasphemy?Dear Protestants,
Whence do you have authority to interpret the Bible as you do, since it is certainly a text which requires interpretation (Acts viii, 31), and it does not admit private interpretation (II Peter i, 20)? Do you believe that you are right as a “holy man of God, inspired by the Holy Spirit” (ibid., 21), and if so, why? How do you know that your interpretation is the right one, above that of the other several thousand denominations equally assured of the veracity of theirs, which they in contradiction to all the others?
The Authority of Jesus the Christ, as given to His Apostles and their successors, and as eventually recorded in the canonized Scriptures.What authority does the catholic church have to interpet the Bible as they do which is bordering on blasphemy?
As MrS has already stated:What authority does the catholic church have to interpet the Bible as they do which is bordering on blasphemy?