Of course it does. It compares the jurisdiction of Alexandria, etc. in its area to that of Rome’s in its.=inkaneer;10190126]
Canon 6 places no restriction or limitations on the authority of the church at Rome
And what dispute are you referring to? What history are you reading that says there was a dispute with the authority of the Church at Rome? If you can recall, the Council was called to address the issue of Arianism, so named after Arius, a priest of Alexandria Egypt. But the council also addressed the issue of Meletius, bishop of Lycopolis in Egypt. The council declared that those ordained by Meletius were to receive again the Laying on of hands, the ordinations performed by Meletius being therefore regarded as invalid. Clergy ordained by Meletius were ordered to yield precedence to those ordained by Alexander, and they were not to do anything without the consent of Bishop Alexander [bishop of Alexandria, Egypt]. It is against that backdrop that Canon 6 was adopted
…and Rome its jurisdiction in the west.Canon 6 therefore provided the bishop of Alexandria oversight of Meletius and the diocese of Lycopolis. This is what it meant when it said, "the ancient customs of Egypt, Libya, and Pentapolis shall be maintained, according to which the bishop of Alexandria has authority over all these places, since a similar custom exists with reference to the bishop of Rome. Similarly in Antioch and the other provinces the prerogatives of the churches are to be preserved.
Correct, no mention of Rome having a supreme decision in any matter.In general the following principle is evident: if anyone is made a bishop without the consent of the metropolitan, this great synod determines that such a one shall not be a bishop. If however, two or three, by reason of personal rivalry dissent from the common vote of all, provided it is reasonable and in accordance with the church’s rule (regula), the vote of the majority shall prevail.
Florence was in 1439, after the Schism.The authority of the Bishop of Rome is not conciliar. The pope is dependant on no council for his authority. Rather his authority comes directly from God and is attested to by scripture. Peter is told by Christ to “Rule my flock” in John 21:16. Councils, on the other hand, are not authoritative unless the pope is in agreement with them or parts of them. There are parts of councils which the pope did not agree with and these portions are not authoritative. The Council of Florence is one that comes to mind.
Rule my flock?
From the DRB.
John 21:16 *When therefore they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter: Simon son of John, lovest thou me more than these? He saith to him: Yea, Lord, thou knowest that I love thee. He saith to him: Feed my lambs. 16 He saith to him again: Simon, son of John, lovest thou me? He saith to him: Yea, Lord, thou knowest that I love thee. He saith to him: Feed my lambs. 17 He said to him the third time: Simon, son of John, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved, because he had said to him the third time: Lovest thou me? And he said to him: Lord, thou knowest all things: thou knowest that I love thee. He said to him: Feed my sheep. *
Where does it say “rule”?
Jon