T
Traditional_Ang
Guest
Or they’re too busy, or, since it’s America, secretly, they agree with him.Or that they don’t know.
Michael
Or they’re too busy, or, since it’s America, secretly, they agree with him.Or that they don’t know.
T. More said:“But this person could be speaking out against Offical Church Teaching. So, if one of your pastors says that Jesus in not God or did not raise from the dead we should draw from that that your church does not believe that Jesus is God and that he raised from the dead?”
It is the job of the heirarchy, and ultimately the Pope, to make that judgment. It is not the job of the private judgment of the individual. That is an essentially individualistic view.
Great post Michael!T. More:
The guys are right. The american Church is in a lot of trouble, and the Pope andd the Bishops who sstick to the faith have their hands so full they can’t chase down every priests that’s like the one referred to here…
…So, since it is the repsonsibility of individuals within the Church ot know the teahcings of the church and to take themselves away from sources of heresy and dessension such as this priest, it becomes incumbant on those who know to do what those who know are doing here, which is to alert th rest to the heresy and rebellion the man is preaching, living and promoting.
What you and others who agree with you choose to do with that is your business.
But the Magisteriunm of the Church is hardly confined to one priest. It’s the consensus of the Church devoloped and expressed for 2000 years in Ecumenical Councils, the 4 Great Creeds, the writings of the Church Fathers and in the Papal Bulls.
If you want to know the Teaching of the Church, try EWTN and Ignatius Books and check out the Vatican website:
vatican.va/phome_en.htm
And stay away from the priest who’s in rebellion against the Church. He’ll just lead you astray. I don’t think any of us wants that.
Blessings and peace, Michael
In theory it may look like someone is individually interpreting the CCC to ‘judge’ the errancy or non errancy of a priest.Great post Michael!
Thanks
Peace
What is the current ecclesiastical law on the matter?Hence “although the usage of Communion under two kinds was not infrequent in the early ages ab initio] of the Christian religion, yet, the custom in this respect having changed almost universally latissime] in the course of time, holy mother the Church, mindful of her authority in the administration of the Sacraments, and influenced by weighty and just reasons, has approved the custom of communicating under one kind, and decreed it to have the force of a law, which may not be set aside or changed but by the Church’s own authority” (Trent, Sess. XXI, c. ii). Not only, therefore, is Communion under both kinds not obligatory on the faithful, but the chalice is strictly forbidden by ecclesiastical law to any but the celebrating priest. These decrees of the Council of Trent were directed against the Reformers of the sixteenth century, who, on the strength of John, vi, 54, Matt., xxvi, 27, and Luke, xxii, 17, 19, enforced in most cases by a denial of the Real Presence and of the Sacrifice of the Mass, maintained the existence of a Divine precept obliging the faithful to receive under both kinds, and denounced the Catholic practice of withholding the cup from the laity as a sacrilegious mutilation of the sacrament.
If you’re going to take the name of a well venerated Catholic Saint, you’d better get this one right! LOL
Hey - I am obviously not a carbon copy of More, as I am not even Catholic!The Doctrine’s called Transubstantiation. What that means is that the Sustance of the bread and the wine are changed into the substance of our Lord’s Body and Blood, One of the Ecumenical Councils, Florence I believe, determined that both Substances are present under both species.
Both are present in either species. The Body is present in the Blood and the Blood is present in the Body.IN any event, I think that we can see that as far as what the early church “looked like” - in this respect it appears to follow the Protestant tradition, which it appears some Catholic parishes are now imitating.
Thanks
Let’s look at this statement. We all agree that the magisterium are not confined to one priest. Yet, by canon law a member of a parish owes his duties to the priest of that parish. The parish priest likewise owes duties to the Catholics in his parish (geographic jurisdiction). The priest is the court of original jurisdiction. Canon law defines this relationship and it is established geographically (in spite of conservatives willingness to often find a parish that suits his private judgments - much like Protestants do in shoping for churches).But the Magisteriunm of the Church is hardly confined to one priest. It’s the consensus of the Church devoloped and expressed for 2000 years in Ecumenical Councils, the 4 Great Creeds, the writings of the Church Fathers and in the Papal Bulls.
You can read about it at:I understand that is what you believe. Still, the practice was different, even if it realtes only what you see as the species. People in the early church actually drank and did not just eat. The Roman Church varied this practice later.
So in terms of what the early Church “looked like” - if you went in you would see people eating and drinking. In RC, that has not been true for a large portion of her history.
Did the ecclesiastical law officially change to allow communion under both species?
I disagree.The guys on this thread are not willing to let the living Church be the authority.
I disagree. The term **‘instead’ **is abitrarily and inappropriately imposed on the option of appealing to the CCC which takes the form of a text.They instead appeal to a text, the CCC.
Imposing one’s individual interpretation on a text or the interpretation of those who agree with one’s individual interpretation is very Protestant. Referring to Church writings (including Scripture) as well as referring to persons whom the Church has authorized to teach as well as offering up questions to God in prayer as well as ultimately submitting to the Magisterium is not Protestant at all; it is Catholic.This is very Protestant, just with a different text. Instead of the scriptures, they use the CCC.
It is dissimilar.The process is similar, though.
Regarding the merits of the Utraquist controversy, if we assume the doctrinal points involved – viz. the absence of a Divine precept imposing Communion under both kinds, the integral presence and reception of Christ under either species, and the discretionary power of the Church over everything connected with the sacraments that is not divinely determined the question of giving or refusing the chalice to the laity becomes purely practical and disciplinary, and is to be decided by a reference to the two fold purpose to be attained, of safeguarding the reverence due to this most august sacrament and of facilitating and encouraging its frequent and fervent reception. Nor can it be doubted that the modern Catholic discipline best secures these ends. The danger of spilling the Precious Blood and of other forms of irreverence; the inconvenience and delay in administering the chalice to large numbers – the difficulty of reservation for Communion outside of Mass: the not unreasonable objection on hygienic and other grounds, to promiscuous drinking from the same chalice, which of itself alone would act as a strong deterrent to frequent Communion in the case of a great many otherwise well-disposed people; these and similar “weighty and just reasons” against the Utraquist practice are more than sufficient to justify the Church in forbidding it. Of the doctrinal points mentioned above, the only one that need be discussed here is the question of the existence or non-existence of a Divine precept imposing Communion sub utraque. Of the texts brought forward by Utraquists in proof of such a precept, the command, “Drink ye all of this” (Matt., xxvi, 27), and its equivalent in St. Luke (xxii, 17, i.e. supposing the reference here to be to the Eucharistic and not to the paschal cup), cannot fairly be held to apply to any but those present those on the occasion, and to them only for that particular occasion. Were one to insist that Christ’s action in administering Holy Communion under both kinds to the Apostles at the Last Supper was intended to lay down a law for all future recipients, he should for the same reason insist that several other temporary and accidental circumstances connected with the first celebration of the Eucharist (e.g. the preceding paschal rites, the use of unleavened bread, the taking of the Sacred Species by the recipients themselves) were likewise intended to be obligatory for all future celebrations. The institution under both kinds, or the separate consecration of the bread and wine, belongs essentially, in Catholic opinion, to the sacrificial, as distinct from the sacramental, character of the Eucharist; and when Christ in the words “Do this for a commemoration of me” (Luke, xxii, 19), gave to the Apostles both the command and the power to offer the Eucharistic sacrifice, they understood Him merely to impose upon them and their successors in the priesthood the obligation of sacrificing sub utraque. This obligation the Church has rigorously observed.I did not see anything on when it changed back to communion of the laity under both species. Can you point that out to me?
Sola Catechism. [/QUOTE said:Incorrect, the catechism is not inerrant. It may contain errors.
T. More said:“The CCC in no way contradicts Church teaching which includes oral, personal, transformative teaching as well as written works of faith.”
My friend, your argument is enitrely circular. You are presupposing your own conclusion.
Mickey, could you please use a larger font next time and break up your posts into paragraphs? It was difficult for me make out what you were saying, although what you said did turn out to be interesting. Thank you.Regarding the merits …observed.