Protestants: please stop using the label "Bible-believing"

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Yeah that’s usually the way intercourse works. Bottomline, he wanted sex without the responsibility.

What do you mean by per se?

You’re trying to make this an either this /or that so you’ll pick the one that suits you rather than see that it is ALL wrong and God took his life as well as He took his brother’s life too.

:doh2:unbelievable!!! God takes Onans life because he spills his seed rather than be open to life and you don’t connect the dots?
Per se means “by itself.” Again, the child would not be legally his, that’s why he didn’t want it. He didn’t fulfil his customary obligation to his brother’s wife.
 
No, Bengoshi, this is a false statement. The Eastern Catholic Churches are so BECAUSE they accept this teaching. Protestants are so because they REJECT this teaching. The Eastern Catholic Churches do not reject this Apostolic Teaching as Protestants do.

If that is so then I stand corrected. Thank you. By the way, what really is your religious affiliation anyway? What do you mean by Ruthenianized Latin?

Well, you can debate all you want, it does not change the fact that they are Papal encyclicals, a fact that is relevant to the topic to the extent that it is important to read and believe what scripture says from the point of view of those who wrote it.

If you see it that way, then fine.

No, Bengoshi. Sacred Writings that did not make it into the canon are not necessarily “mere human work”. There are plenty of HS inspired writings that are not in scripture.

The NT canon is not the only residence of written work inspired by God. God has never confined Himself to a canon.
Yes, the HS does inspire some human writings, but that still does not make it equal to the canonical writings, nor make it inerrant and infallible, otherwise they would have been part of the canon.
 
Again, apples and turnips.

The Catholic Church converted England. The Church has the pope as it’s primary leadeship, not any secular king or queen etc… We’re talking about in your case a king breaking with the pope, and taking the Catholic Church in England and making it his. And he took the property of the Church as well. Everyone who broke with Henry are no longer Catholic by definition.

**As I have told you previously the leadership of the Church , as shown in scripture and Holy Tradition is initially Christ, then the College of Apostles and with their demise the College of Bishops, working,primarily, through the guidance of the Holy Ghost by means of the Ecumenical Councils! In six of the Seven Councils the pope played litle part in the proceedings. In the Seventh, Pope Leo sent a Letter, which the Council first read, then debated and finally compared it to a letteer from S.Cyril, when the letter from Leo was seen to agree with Cyril’s earlier offering, Leo’s letter was finally accepted.
**
When the Catholic Church converted, ‘Britain,’ ?

Initially Britain received the Word at a very early date, Albanicus the Wise, a Celtic historian [AD450] tells us it was shortly after the death of Tiberius Caesar. According to your own historians, the Medieval Councils, mentioned in my earlier post, gave England the precedence on account of Christianity being brought by S.Joseph of Arimathea to that country. Don’t get hung up on S.Joseph, the point being that Christianity came early and no record at all shows it came from Rome. Roman apologists in Elizabethan times gave the place of origin as ,‘east,’ [Persons, Cardinal Pole]. The Orthodox in this country say that S.Simon Zelotes was martyred here. Whilst Lingard, my favourite Roman historian, claims that Aristobulous was first bishop in Britain.

Judas had problems with authority too. And he was an apostle hand picked by Jesus. You gonna defend him because he had problems with the way things were set up.

The trouble with your argument is that the claim of the English Church,that the Pope had no authority in this country,was based on sound teaching from the Ecumenical Councils!
No matter how you twist ,turn or squirm, the matter is that they had every right by canon law on their side!

which council?

**The Council of Nice’
Let the ancient customs prevail…that the Bishop of Alexandria should have the same authority over all these, [local churches,] '…since it is the accustomed practice for the Bishop in Rome also and similarly in Antioch!
This puts Rome in no better position than the other two Patriarchies.
**
**The 2nd, Council, Constantinople.
Forbids all bishops to go beyond their own borders.Neither should they interfere in other dioceses. Further it confirms that Rome’s priviliges are from a political base,
that of being the former seat of Government [old Rome] and bestowing on Constantinople the same privileges as New Rome.

The Council of Carthage [41**9] **enacted a canon specifically directed at Rome and the Papacy, Forbidding all appeals beyond the sea or to any authority save African Councils or primates!

At another Carthage Council 5yrs later, the same delegates [virtually,] accused the pope of passing off as genuine, forged canons of Nice! Pointing out that the pope had transgressed the Holy Canons by interfereing in other provinces. They begged him to refrain and mind his own business for the future and keep within ecclesiastical law!

The 3rd Council,
Canon 7&8****

**Enacted a Canon forbidding all bishops to extend their jurisdiction over fresh territory!
Ordering that ‘in all other dioceses and provinces no bishop shall invade any province which was not from the beginning under his jurisdiction or that of his predecessors.’

4th, General Council.
Chalcedon!

Again defined the rights of both Old Rome and new Rome and in its ninth canon ordered that there was no right of appeal from Constanitinople to Rome. Again they emphasised that Rome’s pre-eminence was due to its political situation.Further I reiterate that the pope was the emperors servant, who went on errands and served as a member of the
burocracy,[or however one spells it.]

By the way according to one source there was a definition of the popes power given by a Roman Council, i Think it was the 496 Synod under Gelasius,
"IT IS THE DUTY OF PONTIFFS TO OBEY THE IMPERIAL ORDINANCES IN ALL THINGS TEMPORAL!.

Read them brother and not from New Advent,please!

What popes?,

John 12th, was deprived at the Council of Rome [963] for Simony, Adultry and other grievous crimes.

Sutri in 1046.
Condemned Sylvester 111rd, as an imposter,degraded him and imprisoned him for life.
Also forced the two others to abdicate.

Neither of these councils were ecumenical, simply local Roman. But their actions stood the test!

Pisa. excommunicated and deposed both Benedict X111th, and Gregory X11th. naming them, Schismatics and perjurors.
It then proceeded to elect Alexander Vth, Peter of Candia.

what work from S Thomas More?

He wrote to Cromwell the Vice regent?] stating that he, [Thom More,] believed that the pope was subject to a Council.**
 
If that is so then I stand corrected. Thank you. By the way, what really is your religious affiliation anyway? What do you mean by Ruthenianized Latin?
I was baptized into the Latin Rite as an infant. I had a similar horrible experience of formation as did Tweety and her husband. I left the Church as a teen, shortly after I was confirmed, and joined a Southern Baptist church. It is a long story of many denoniminations. Suffice to say that I entered seminary to train for the ministry through a Methodist congregation. After studying Greek, I studied the Early Church writings and Historical Theology. I realized that the Church founded by Christ is Catholic, and all others are offshoots, containing only partial truth. When I returned to the Catholic Church, I was so disgusted by the liturgical abuses in the Latin Rite that I went to the Easter Rite Byzantine Church. the Byzantine tradition which I joined is Ruthenian This is one of the 22 Catholic Rites in union with the Bishop of Rome. The Liturgy is in Greek,a nd it has not changed much in 1000 years. I do not have to tolerate the gross irreverence I experience in many Latin parishes today.
Well, you can debate all you want, it does not change the fact that they are Papal encyclicals, a fact that is relevant to the topic to the extent that it is important to read and believe what scripture says from the point of view of those who wrote it.
I suppose you can blame the church that individuals have failed to do this, but that is like blaming Christ for Judas’ refusal to follow Him. How is it Jesus’ fault?
If you see it that way, then fine.
Are you saying we are not in agreement that Protestants reject the role given by Christ to the successor of Peter, as taught by the Catholic Church? It seems to me that this is one of the main precursors to the Protestant Reformation. Especially in England, where King Henry the 8th clearly decided that the Roman Pontiff had no jurisdiction over him.

. Sacred Writings that did not make it into the canon are not necessarily “mere human work”. There are plenty of HS inspired writings that are not in scripture.

The NT canon is not the only residence of written work inspired by God. God has never confined Himself to a canon.
Yes, the HS does inspire some human writings, but that still does not make it equal to the canonical writings, nor make it inerrant and infallible, otherwise they would have been part of the canon.
There were many criteria for documents to be included in the canon of the NT. Being inspired is only one of them. The fact that many inspired documents did not get included only means that the NT was not intended to be a complete compendium of inspired works.
 
In six of the Seven Councils the pope played litle part in the proceedings.
prove that statement. Source properly referenced
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lucky:
In the Seventh, Pope Leo sent a Letter, which the Council first read, then debated and finally compared it to a letteer from S.Cyril, when the letter from Leo was seen to agree with Cyril’s earlier offering, Leo’s letter was finally accepted.
What letter from Leo?

What letter from Cyril?
40.png
lucky:
Initially Britain received the Word at a very early date, Albanicus the Wise, a Celtic historian [AD450] tells us it was shortly after the death of Tiberius Caesar. According to your own historians, the Medieval Councils, mentioned in my earlier post, gave England the precedence on account of Christianity being brought by S.Joseph of Arimathea to that country. Don’t get hung up on S.Joseph, the point being that Christianity came early and no record at all shows it came from Rome.

Roman apologists in Elizabethan times gave the place of origin as ,‘east,’ [Persons, Cardinal Pole
]. The Orthodox in this country say that S.Simon Zelotes was martyred here. Whilst Lingard, my favourite Roman historian, claims that Aristobulous was first bishop in Britain**.**

:doh2:
  • 1st you say Joseph of Arimathea brought Christianity to Britain, then you say don’t get hung up on that. Why, because you know it can’t be remotely proven?
  • then you say Aristobulus brought Christianity to Britain. Are you speaking of Aristobulus who Paul greets in his letter to the Church of Rome? If THAT’s true, that is proof positive the Church of Rome sent him to Britain to spread Christianity
However
  • :hmmm:I wonder why S. Bede never mentioned Aristobulus in his history of the Church in England ccel.org/ccel/bede/history.v.i.iv.html instead he DID mention Lucius the king of Britain asking the pope if he could be received as a Christian. Now why would the king do that if Christianity was already in Britain by Aristobulus, and therefore bishops were there already?.
If you accept Bede and what he wrote, (link above) then his quote alone shuts your argument down in denying Rome brought Christianity to Britain or that the pope had no authority in Britain… If you don’t accept Bede, then you have to accept Aristobulus who YOU brought up, as bringing Christianity to Britain, except he came from Rome, to spread Christianity to Britain.

You have a dilema in your argument. Your argument so far denying Christianity came to Britain via Rome isn’t working. Your argument is actually proving Rome Christianised Britain

your other arguments which followed are highly flawed as well

[snip]
 
The argument is based on definition of Catholic. Catholic from 1 A.D. or Catholic from 513 A.D. (when everyone seemed determined to excommunicate everyone else. “You’ve excommunicated me, I’ll excommunicate you”. East and West were divided.
The theology under the influence of St Paul (around Rome) was legalistic, judicial. In Britain there was developing a theology of ‘God the Creator’, Celtic theology, a lot more earthy.
As is usually the case victors replace the beliefs of those who are defeated or the beliefs are transferred elsewhere. Judicial Roman Catholicism became the new established ‘religion’ in Britain.

Protestants: please stop using the label “Bible-believers” or is the request: “Protestants stop interpreting Scripture in a way I find disagreeable.”
 
The argument is based on definition of Catholic. Catholic from 1 A.D. or Catholic from 513 A.D. (when everyone seemed determined to excommunicate everyone else. “You’ve excommunicated me, I’ll excommunicate you”. East and West were divided.
The theology under the influence of St Paul (around Rome) was legalistic, judicial. In Britain there was developing a theology of ‘God the Creator’, Celtic theology, a lot more earthy.
please Explain
W:
As is usually the case victors replace the beliefs of those who are defeated or the beliefs are transferred elsewhere. Judicial Roman Catholicism became the new established ‘religion’ in Britain.
please Explain
W:
Protestants: please stop using the label “Bible-believers” or is the request: “Protestants stop interpreting Scripture in a way I find disagreeable.”
Since the scriptures were written in the Church, by the Church, for the Church, one can’t interpret scripture in a way that opposes the Church who has been here from the beginning, and gave us the scriptures.
 
Steve b

My opening preposition. How do you define the Catholic Church? From what period do you date it? When did it begin to refer to itself as ‘the Catholic Church’ as opposed to the ‘Orthodox Church’? This is where the argument is hinged.
Historical Britain - there were 2 Churches in existence. Witnessed by artwork of the period.
The Orthodox claims they are the original missionaries to Britain.
The prejudice of the matter appears attitudinal. From what do you build your bias?
Historical record shows people replacing belief.
 
Steve b

My opening preposition. How do you define the Catholic Church? From what period do you date it? When did it begin to refer to itself as ‘the Catholic Church’ as opposed to the ‘Orthodox Church’?
What did Ignatius of Antioch say? Where the bishop is there is the Catholic Church.

What does the creed say?

I believe in the One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church.
W:
This is where the argument is hinged.
Historical Britain - there were 2 Churches in existence. Witnessed by artwork of the period.
The Orthodox claims they are the original missionaries to Britain.
And when did the [O]rthodox do this?
W:
The prejudice of the matter appears attitudinal. From what do you build your bias?
Historical record shows people replacing belief.
explain

Was your response a response to this post?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=5763943&postcount=961
 
prove that statement. Source properly referenced

**
Friend, I have no wish to be rude but I feel I have gone far enough in this discussion with you, as you give the impression a that you have very little knowledge of the subject we’re engaged in, or even a desire to hear another side of the question.

When you ask who is Cyprian and who is Leo, though we are talking about the Ecumenical Councils, I realise I have neither the heart or the time to spend with you.

No doubt we’ll meet at some future date when I’ve got over the shock!

God bless

Lucky.
**
 
I suppose you can blame the church that individuals have failed to do this, but that is like blaming Christ for Judas’ refusal to follow Him. How is it Jesus’ fault?

Are you saying we are not in agreement that Protestants reject the role given by Christ to the successor of Peter, as taught by the Catholic Church? It seems to me that this is one of the main precursors to the Protestant Reformation. Especially in England, where King Henry the 8th clearly decided that the Roman Pontiff had no jurisdiction over him.

. Sacred Writings that did not make it into the canon are not necessarily “mere human work”. There are plenty of HS inspired writings that are not in scripture.

The NT canon is not the only residence of written work inspired by God. God has never confined Himself to a canon.

There were many criteria for documents to be included in the canon of the NT. Being inspired is only one of them. The fact that many inspired documents did not get included only means that the NT was not intended to be a complete compendium of inspired works.
The quotes are not in order which makes this difficult to understand. Some of the things you quoted did not come from me but from you. I agree with you that Protestants generally reject the primacy of Peter and his alleged papal succession.
 
What does the creed say?
I believe in the One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church.

There are at least 2 ways of interpreting this: ‘Roman’ Catholic or ‘universal’ (catholic, i.e. Christianity). And in the Creed there is no ‘the’ prior to ‘one holy catholic and apostolic church’. And capital letters are (also) additional.
I know it’s the time when Roman Catholics start clapping their hands and celebrating but there is more to this than you might think.

explain

Was your response a response to this post?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=5763943&postcount=961
 
**This is the Faith of the Apostles; this is the Faith of the Fathers; this is the Faith of the orthodox; this is the Faith that sustained the world…we uphold the ancient institutions of the Catholic Church; whosever adds or removes something from the Catholic Church we anathematize.

min., 7th,Ecumenical Synod. [787AD.]

They are speaking of The Catholic Faith, the Faith of The Apostles and Fathers and the Faith of the first thousand years and there is mentioned neither hide nor hair of the Papacy.**
 
equally as irritating is the term “Full Gospel” used by the Word of Faith “name it and claim it” folks.
 
What does the creed say?
I believe in the One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church.

There are at least 2 ways of interpreting this: ‘Roman’ Catholic or ‘universal’ (catholic, i.e. Christianity). And in the Creed there is no ‘the’ prior to ‘one holy catholic and apostolic church’. And capital letters are (also) additional.
I know it’s the time when Roman Catholics start clapping their hands and celebrating but there is more to this than you might think.

explain

Was your response a response to this post?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=5763943&postcount=961/QUOTE

Unless you are Lutheran in which case it says One Holy Christian and Apostolic Church :confused:
 
equally as irritating is the term “Full Gospel” used by the Word of Faith “name it and claim it” folks.
Never heard someone use the term before. Then again I have never heard of the Word of Faith movement either.

Should I consider myself lucky in that regard?

God bless
 
Steve b

.
Historical Britain - there were 2 Churches in existence. Witnessed by artwork of the period.
The Orthodox claims they are the original missionaries to Britain.
.
Well, if they really do, and it is not a misunderstanding on your part, it’s never been mentioned before.

However, it is acknowledged that various saints of the Celtic church came over from Ireland, and spread the Gospel before Augustine was sent by the Pope.

There was conflict between them which was resolved at Whitby, an English village then.

So in that sense there were two churches for a time, one Celtic and one Roman, each with their own rituals and calendar.

The Orthodox? No.
 
**
Well, if they really do, and it is not a misunderstanding on your part, it’s never been mentioned before.
]I was taught that the Church arrived in Britain in the early days of the Faith.

Tertullian AD155, taught, “The extremeties of Spain, the various parts of Gaul, the regions of Britain…have received the religion of Christ!” [Ter,Def,Fidei]

Eusebius, the Historian, S.Athanasius, and S.Dorotheus of Tyre plus S.John Chrysostom, all told of Christianity being in Britain at an early date. The Archbishop of Tyre wrote, ,"Aristobulous, whom Paul saluted, writing to the Romans,[Ch,16vs10.]
Syn De Apostol. Syn 9.] was first Bishop of Britain! S.Dorotheus also claimed S,Simon Zelotes, Our Lord’s Brother was martyred here!

Albanicus,[Gildas,] the Historian, wrote,"Christ the true Son afforded His Light , the knowledge of His precepts, to our Island, in the last year, as we know,Of Tiberius Caesar. [De Exidio Brittannica.]

Our Bishops were present at the Council of Nice,[at least one,] according to the RC ]’ Catholic Messenger.’ [Father Eastell.]

There were plenty more utterances . Bede said of the British Clergy," They diligently followed whatever pure and devout customs they learned in Prophets, Gospels and writings of the Apostles."**
 
Code:
the first thousand years and there is mentioned neither hide nor hair of the Papacy.
It is amazing that such a careful student of history could make such a blatantly false statement. Even if one does not agree with the notion of the Papacy, it clearly has historical testimony since the second century.

Your own posts have demonstrated this, bringing quotes from the ecumencal councils legislating against interference from foreign bishops. If the Bishop of Rome had not been throwing his weight around, then this would not have been necessary! 🤷
 
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