Again, apples and turnips.
The Catholic Church converted England. The Church has the pope as it’s primary leadeship, not any secular king or queen etc… We’re talking about in your case a king breaking with the pope, and taking the Catholic Church in England and making it his. And he took the property of the Church as well. Everyone who broke with Henry are no longer Catholic by definition.
**As I have told you previously the leadership of the Church , as shown in scripture and Holy Tradition is initially Christ, then the College of Apostles and with their demise the College of Bishops, working,primarily, through the guidance of the Holy Ghost by means of the Ecumenical Councils! In six of the Seven Councils the pope played litle part in the proceedings. In the Seventh, Pope Leo sent a Letter, which the Council first read, then debated and finally compared it to a letteer from S.Cyril, when the letter from Leo was seen to agree with Cyril’s earlier offering, Leo’s letter was finally accepted.
**
When the Catholic Church converted, ‘Britain,’ ?
Initially Britain received the Word at a very early date, Albanicus the Wise, a Celtic historian [AD450] tells us it was shortly after the death of Tiberius Caesar. According to your own historians, the Medieval Councils, mentioned in my earlier post, gave England the precedence on account of Christianity being brought by S.Joseph of Arimathea to that country. Don’t get hung up on S.Joseph, the point being that Christianity came early and no record at all shows it came from Rome. Roman apologists in Elizabethan times gave the place of origin as ,‘east,’ [Persons, Cardinal Pole]. The Orthodox in this country say that S.Simon Zelotes was martyred here. Whilst Lingard, my favourite Roman historian, claims that Aristobulous was first bishop in Britain.
Judas had problems with authority too. And he was an apostle hand picked by Jesus. You gonna defend him because he had problems with the way things were set up.
The trouble with your argument is that the claim of the English Church,that the Pope had no authority in this country,was based on sound teaching from the Ecumenical Councils!
No matter how you twist ,turn or squirm, the matter is that they had every right by canon law on their side!
which council?
**The Council of Nice’
Let the ancient customs prevail…that the Bishop of Alexandria should have the same authority over all these, [local churches,] '…since it is the accustomed practice for the Bishop in Rome also and similarly in Antioch!
This puts Rome in no better position than the other two Patriarchies.
**
**The 2nd, Council, Constantinople.
Forbids all bishops to go beyond their own borders.Neither should they interfere in other dioceses. Further it confirms that Rome’s priviliges are from a political base,
that of being the former seat of Government [old Rome] and bestowing on Constantinople the same privileges as New Rome.
The Council of Carthage [41**9] **enacted a canon specifically directed at Rome and the Papacy, Forbidding all appeals beyond the sea or to any authority save African Councils or primates!
At another Carthage Council 5yrs later, the same delegates [virtually,] accused the pope of passing off as genuine, forged canons of Nice! Pointing out that the pope had transgressed the Holy Canons by interfereing in other provinces. They begged him to refrain and mind his own business for the future and keep within ecclesiastical law!
The 3rd Council,
Canon 7&8****
**Enacted a Canon forbidding all bishops to extend their jurisdiction over fresh territory!
Ordering that ‘in all other dioceses and provinces no bishop shall invade any province which was not from the beginning under his jurisdiction or that of his predecessors.’
4th, General Council.
Chalcedon!
Again defined the rights of both Old Rome and new Rome and in its ninth canon ordered that there was no right of appeal from Constanitinople to Rome. Again they emphasised that Rome’s pre-eminence was due to its political situation.Further I reiterate that the pope was the emperors servant, who went on errands and served as a member of the
burocracy,[or however one spells it.]
By the way according to one source there was a definition of the popes power given by a Roman Council, i Think it was the 496 Synod under Gelasius,
"IT IS THE DUTY OF PONTIFFS TO OBEY THE IMPERIAL ORDINANCES IN ALL THINGS TEMPORAL!.
Read them brother and not from New Advent,please!
What popes?,
John 12th, was deprived at the Council of Rome [963] for Simony, Adultry and other grievous crimes.
Sutri in 1046.
Condemned Sylvester 111rd, as an imposter,degraded him and imprisoned him for life.
Also forced the two others to abdicate.
Neither of these councils were ecumenical, simply local Roman. But their actions stood the test!
Pisa. excommunicated and deposed both Benedict X111th, and Gregory X11th. naming them, Schismatics and perjurors.
It then proceeded to elect Alexander Vth, Peter of Candia.
what work from S Thomas More?
He wrote to Cromwell the Vice regent?] stating that he, [Thom More,] believed that the pope was subject to a Council.**