Protestants: Why Reject 7 books if Jesus didn't?

  • Thread starter Thread starter AlruwhAlquds
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
A

AlruwhAlquds

Guest
I think I recall Martin Luther decided to follow the Jewish cannon so today protestants all over don’t have the same Catholic bible (I’m sure there’s more to that). But what I want to know is if Jesus didn’t reject those 7 books then why do protestants? I’m curious to know how other Protestants would answer.
 
Last edited:
This will result in a beehive defense of the indefensible, but have a read into that German priest’s mental health, his mental state, his personality traits and the visceral hatred he harbored against anyone who dared disagree with him.

The rest follows from that.
 
Last edited:
I’ve learned a little from both sides of the coin on Luther. I agree that satan used him and he split the church.
But that’s not what I’m asking. Luther is not Christ, Christ didn’t take out those 7 books.
 
Last edited:
I am a Catholic. My understanding is that the Jews through out the books that were written in Greek some time after Jesus was crucified. The church takes the view that after Jesus’ church was established the Jews no longer had dominion over their scriptures so what was in place during Jesus’s life stands.
 
Martin developed an irrational hatred of first, the Pope, then the entire Church and its teachings. He therefore rejected what the Church possessed and taught and went to the Hebrew authorities and begged them for what scriptures he should use. His hatred must have blinded him to the fact that the Hebrews rejected Christ and certain books which pointed to Him as Messiah.

A very good book on this is Dissent from the Creed by Fr. Richard Hogan.


Another great book is Where We Got The Bible by Bishop Henry Graham. Between the two, I think you will have your answer.

 
Different sects of Jews had different cannons. There was never one official cannon. And the answer is different depending on which Protestant you ask.
 
From earlier threads on the same subject, I have learned that it’s not even known for certain which books were already in the Jewish canon, in the time of Jesus. It may not have been until after the year 70, when Jerusalem was destroyed by Titus’ legions, that the rabbis settled the canon in its definitive form.
 
The simplest answer is, God’s Word cannot contradict… There are countless contradictions and myth’s saturated in those 7 books. Jesus referred to several OT books, but never from the Apocrypha…
 
Christianapologist said:
The simplest answer is, God’s Word cannot contradict…
Click to expand...
Do you mean like Gn 1 where God creates light on the 1st day and then he creates light on the 4th day also? Or where God creates animals first then man in Gn 1 but in Gn 2 God creates man first then animals? Or possibly where it says Noah was righteous Gn 7 and Job was righteous in Jb 1 & 2 and Zechariah was righteous in Lk 1, but in Rom 3 it says no one is righteous? Are these the kind of contradictions You speak about in God’s word? Is there a different kind of contradiction in this “apocrypha” you speak about you cannot explain?

Peace!!!
 
Last edited:
Christianapologist said:
Jesus referred to several OT books, but never from the Apocrypha…
Click to expand...
As you say, “several,” but by no means all. So what kind of criterion is that? Jesus never mentions, or quotes from, or refers to, 1 Samuel, 2 Samuel, 1 Kings, and 2 Kings. What does that tell us about the legitimacy of those four books?
 
Heb 11:35 is a reference to the events described in 2 Maccabees 7.
So it follows that Jesus and the Apostles accepted the Septuagint.
 
The work of choosing the 66 books was already accomplished in several early councils. One of the criteria was that they could not contradict God’s Word. If you think that there is an apparent contradiction, look deeper and at the narrow and broad context.
 
The reference is just one example of the Apocrypha’s rejection. Let’s look at the criteria that the Hebrew’s used to reject it… “contradictions” and myths".
 
You may want to explain who’s truth you are referring to… man’s truth or God’s truth…? Or maybe the better question is: What is truth…? And where do you find it…?
 
Christianapologist said:
Let’s look at the criteria that the Hebrew’s used to reject it… “contradictions” and myths".
Click to expand...
Yes, we know that those seven books were left out of the Jewish canon. The question being discussed here is a different one, namely whether or not they were included in the early Christian canon. The answer is that they were included at least from 382 onward, as you can see from the proceedings of the Council of Rome:

 
Christianapologist said:
The work of choosing the 66 books was already accomplished in several early councils.
Click to expand...
Which early councils? I have just shown you that the Council of Rome, held in 382, adopted the full OT canon including Judith, Wisdom, Sirach, and the others.
 
Can you show specifically, how you know 2 Mac 7 is a reference to Hebrews 11:35…?
 
I was referring to the entire 66 book collection. They were formed by the Holy Spirit through the Council of Hippo in 393, the Third Council of Carthage in 397, and the Fourth Council of Carthage in 419.
 
Wrong again, @Christianapologist. Look at the lists for yourself. Don’t swallow the fake news you’ve been fed by some unscrupulous propagandist. In some early lists of the OT canon, “the three books of Solomon” were Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, and Song of Songs. “The five books of Solomon”, as here, were the same three plus the Wisdom of Solomon and Ecclesiasticus (Sirach).


 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top