H
hatsoff
Guest
If a theorem can be proved from a set of axioms, then those axioms collectively logically imply the theorem, yes. However, the axiom declaring the existence of a line does not individually imply the existence of a point. For example, if we had axiom I1 but not I2, then we could declare that there is no line l with l nonempty. Or if we only had axiom I2 but not I1, then we could say that there are no lines and thus no points.That was going to be my original response, though I would not have stated as clearly as you did.
However, my second thought was that line assumes the existence point (point being logically prior to line), and therefore any argument to prove the existence of point from the existence of line implicitly presupposes what it attempts to show. Hence that argument does not hold.
What say you?