C
ChristinaM
Guest
Background: I was in a discussion in a conservative group on another forum, and someone brought up a bumper sticker they had seen “Pray for Obama: Psalm 109:8.” We had a good laugh considering the verse:
Psalm 109:8:
Psalm 109:9:
New American Bible:
New Revised Standard Version:
King James Version:
My question is…what is the reliable translation here? I know we as Catholics do not use the KJV for obvious reasons, but why such a difference between the NRSV and the RSV? Can someone more experienced with Scripture help me to understand this?
Note: PLEASE do not turn this into a political discussion! I am interested only in possible reasons why these four translations are so different. I think it should go without saying that I do not wish death on anybody…
Psalm 109:8:
Sounded like someone using a scriptural reference to take a shot at Obama, hoping he would be a one-term president. Then another poster came into the forum, saying that the Scripture was a “death wish” on him because of the next verse:May his days be few; may another take his office.
Psalm 109:9:
So that turned into a debate on the meaning and context of Psalm 109. I was referencing the New American Bible, which has the following:May his children be fatherless, his wife, a widow.
New American Bible:
It goes on from there, until verse 20, as a quotation of the evil things the psalmist’s enemies are saying about him. The New Revised Standard Version is very similar:6 "Find a lying witness, an accuser to stand by his right hand,Code:My enemies say of me:
7 That he may be judged and found guilty, that his plea may be in vain.
8 May his days be few; may another take his office.
9 May his children be fatherless, his wife, a widow.
New Revised Standard Version:
The King James version, however, has this:They say, ‘Appoint a wicked man against him;
let an accuser stand on his right.
7When he is tried, let him be found guilty;
let his prayer be counted as sin.
May his days be few;
may another seize his position.
9May his children be orphans,
and his wife a widow.
King James Version:
Instead of being a quote of what the psalmist’s enemies say, it reads as the psalmist’s imprecation on his enemies. The Revised Standard Version is similar in wording:Set thou a wicked man over him: and let Satan stand at his right hand.
7 When he shall be judged, let him be condemned: and let his prayer become sin.
8 Let his days be few; and let another take his office.
9 Let his children be fatherless, and his wife a widow.
Revised Standard Version said:[6]
Appoint a wicked man against him;
let an accuser bring him to trial.
[7] When he is tried, let him come forth guilty;
let his prayer be counted as sin!
[8] May his days be few;
may another seize his goods!
[9] May his children be fatherless,
and his wife a widow!
My question is…what is the reliable translation here? I know we as Catholics do not use the KJV for obvious reasons, but why such a difference between the NRSV and the RSV? Can someone more experienced with Scripture help me to understand this?
Note: PLEASE do not turn this into a political discussion! I am interested only in possible reasons why these four translations are so different. I think it should go without saying that I do not wish death on anybody…