S
SirChing
Guest
In looking further at the article in the Catholic Encyclopedia (thanks for the reference Hecares!), I saw this section that I think applies directly to the question at hand (bold words placed for emphasis by me):
“…it is plain that the opposition between appetite and reason is natural in man, and that, though it be an imperfection, it is not a corruption of human nature. Nor have the inordinate desires (actual concupiscence) or the proneness to them (habitual concupiscence) the nature of sin; for sin, being the free and deliberate transgression of the law of God, can be only in the rational will; though it be true that they are temptations to sin, becoming the stronger and the more frequent the oftener they have been indulged.”
There is much more there - check it out jnpl1185! I learned a lot on this subject just by reading through that article.
“…it is plain that the opposition between appetite and reason is natural in man, and that, though it be an imperfection, it is not a corruption of human nature. Nor have the inordinate desires (actual concupiscence) or the proneness to them (habitual concupiscence) the nature of sin; for sin, being the free and deliberate transgression of the law of God, can be only in the rational will; though it be true that they are temptations to sin, becoming the stronger and the more frequent the oftener they have been indulged.”
There is much more there - check it out jnpl1185! I learned a lot on this subject just by reading through that article.