purgatory

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To build is an action word…it is something that you DO.
Ah-huh, that’s true.
It may be figurative but it is figurative of the twin meanings of purifying and destroying.
There’s nothing said about “purifying” anything or anybody in that passage.
Fine. But the person LOSES what he or she has built in this process.
No, he loses REWARD.
If what you have built is not worthy of heaven, then it will be removed
The believer in this passage is not laboring for the goal of being rewarded heaven. Heaven for the true believer is never called a reward - it’s his Home (2 Cor. 5:8) through Divine adoption; it’s where he has his citizenship (Phil. 3:20).
  • you will be cleansed of that which is not appropriate for the kingdom.
The passage speaks nothing of “cleansing” the believer. It’s all about his WORKS and REWARDS (or loss of). “Cleansing” is found nowhere in the text or the context. He was already cleansed (“washed”) by the blood of Christ at the time of personal belief in Him (1 Cor. 6:11)
The rest of this is just repetition of your previous denials and statements of your unbelief that I pointed out previously.
Rejection of a doctrine that can not be Divinely supported is not “unbelief.” Such rejection falls into the category of spiritual wisdom.
 
Can you show me in the CCC where it states that your Purgatory is the time when Catholics “pay” for their sins? I thought it was about “cleansing,” not paying debts (cf. Col. 2: 13-14).

Frankly, Thing, I really don’t think you can apply Matt. 5:25-26 to your doctrine of purgatory. Certainly you’re reading it into that verse, but what’s stated there doesn’t begin to describe “purgatory.” Who’s your opponent at law you’re to quickly make friends with on the way (on the way to where?) before he hands you over to the judge and you get thrown into prison (purgatory)? What does it mean to make friends with him while you’re with him on the way? You’re in purgatory because you didn’t quickly “make friends” with your opponent at law? Explain that to me, please.
Certainly. You are in this world to prepare yourself for eternal life. All you need to know is that the very least hindrence to entering eternal life must be removed; as per those verses you referenced, here the audience is told they must act now so they will not be liable for any fault.
He said to the hypocrites that; even of yourselves, do you not judge that which is just?
Even the hypocrites know what justice is.
-59 I say to thee, thou shalt not go out thence, until thou pay the very last mite.
They know to fear justice well enough because they know they will not be released from justice until they pay every last mite.

-33 Shouldst not thou then have had compassion also on thy fellow servant, even as I had compassion on thee? 34 And his lord being angry, delivered him to the torturers until he paid all the debt. 35 So also shall my heavenly Father do to you, if you forgive not every one his brother from your hearts.
 
Because we don’t believe in a works gospel. I wonder why all this ink is spent on people obviously saved? In your theology they cannot lose it so why the reminders if they are all believers? Seems like James is preaching to the choir … in the way you see it. How many times can you not feed the poor or help your neighbor or speak ill of someone before you figure out you were never really saved in the first place? I imagine if you “feel” remorse all is good.Are these not sins … in your theology haven’t future sins already been forgiven at the moment of personal profession of accepting Jesus as Lord and Savior. It has been stated on this thread that all future sins have been forgiven at that moment of personal faith in Jesus Christ and now you are saying that the profession given in the past is of no avail?
This is double speak … because they did not do good works proves their faith was not saving. Why was not the original profession good enough. Are you going to tell me that every person who has made a personal profession of accepting Jesus Christ as personal Lord and Savior is saved … if so then you stated earlier that by lacking good works you are not a Christian. What saves … the faith or the good works proving the faith.
I see you’re not understanding what I am saying. Its important to know who the NT writer was speaking to and what the circumstances were.The book of James was addressed to the 12 scattered tribes. It was written when the church was still primarily Jewish and Jews were still trying to hang on to the Law and circumcision, etc. This is a simple church structure. Notice it mentions no bishops or deacons, only elders. This church is still in its teaching phase. What may seem like “preaching to the choir” to us today, was all new to them. James is practical. It reads more like a commentary on the teachings of Christ. Faith and works are mentioned repeatedly, but he presents them not as conflicting, but as complementary. James said faith may be genuine or false. This is what he is trying to teach the brethren. You must remember, what’s obvious to us today, was not to them. The churches were still in infancy. James speaks about those who professed to believe that Jesus was the Christ. He blames respect for outward appearance of persons. They profess faith in the Lord Jesus, and yet act like those in the world. Before salvation, the Jews believed in the efficacy of works. Now some were reacting at the opposite extreme, imagining that works plays no part in the life of the new believer. James retorts that the kind of faith that does not produce works is a spurious faith. But James **never said ** that works justify us before God; for God can see the faith without its works. Abraham had faith and it was declared righteousness. The world couldn’t see this faith, but God did. The world could see Abraham’s faith if they witnessed him raising the knife to Isaac. But God already declared Abraham righteous before he ever raised that knife. So, when the world asks show me what a true christian looks like, this is what James is explaining. A true Christian bears fruit. An unsaved person (i.e. the world) cannot produce the works of the Spirit.

You say you don’t believe in a works gospel, yet you are depending on a sacramental system, are you not? You depend on your church and the rules and rituals of this church. You believe membership in this church guarantees a ticket to heaven. This is why some of you say they’re not concerned about their salvation. Catholics say they believe they are redeemed by the death of Christ, but at the other side of their mouth they say that Christ merely opened the door to heaven so that God can pour out grace to help you obey this system, and salvation is conditioned on what one does or does not do in the sacramental system.

What did Christ say in Matt 7 to those who had put their faith in something other than in Him alone, such as religion and works of that religion? “Depart from me! I never knew you!” Some were already calling Him Lord. but would later refuse to accept the completed work of the cross. What then is the will of the Father mentioned in Matt 7:21? Jesus isn’t speaking of works. He is speaking of ‘will.’

In another place, Jesus said, “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.” (John 6:40) See the connection. It is possible to speak of Jesus as Lord, but never actually receive Him to yourself as the completer of your salvation. But the people kept saying: but look at all the good works we did in your name! Jesus cast them all out!

We are saved by grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone. No where in the Scriptures are we told that our salvation depends on our works. Any works, whether it be all those traditions of the church or whatever. The works we are given to do, are works assigned to us by the Holy Spirit. But these are not salvation works. They are works that glorify our Father. This is James.

Please show me where Jesus ever gave us a sacramental system? Where did He ever say that a priest, with a victim (Him) and sacrifices was to be repeated until the end of the world.
 
Nor can you make a prohibition against the “circumcision of Christ” based upon silence nor upon the “tradition of men” that arose 1500 years after the Apostles baptized those households.

Moreover, we know that:

Clement would have learned it from Peter.

Irenaeus would have learned it from Polycarp.

Polycarp would have learned it from John.

Timothy and Titus would have learned it from Paul.

And so on down to our present day. This is how you know that the 27 books in your New Testament are the word of God…because someone before you told you that it is so. Tradition is the unwritten teaching of the Apostles handed on through the life of the Church.

The Church has baptized infants from the very beginning. It is part Apostolic Tradition.
Randy, my friend, the problem is you cannot prove all of these “unwritten” teachings came directly from the apostles. There’s no way to check it. There is also no such thing as unanimous consent among church Fathers. Over the years, different fathers, popes and councils said different things.
The Church has baptized infants from the very beginning. It is part Apostolic Tradition.
Randy this is simply not true. You are merely repeating what others have said to you. Please read these catholic sources:

“Baptism used to be given by placing the person to be baptized completely in the water: it was done in this way in the Catholic Church for 1200 years.” (Adult Catechism, pp. 56-57).

“Ecclesiastical custom with regard to the administration of Baptism has undergone a change in the course of history. Whereas the early Church baptized adults only, the baptism of children soon became the usual practice.” (Pastoral Medicine, pp. 32-33).

“The church at one time practiced immersion. This was up to the thirteenth century. The Council of Ravenna, in 1311, changed the form from immersion to pouring.” (Our Faith and the Facts, p. 399).

The following Catholic official openly acknowledges that the Catholic Church changed immersion to pouring simply because it was more convenient. “The present mode of pouring arose from the many inconveniences connected with immersion, frequent mention of which are made in the writings of the early Church Fathers.” (Question Box, p. 366). The wicked king Jereboam made things convenient for the people by setting up idols and saying, “It is too much for you to go up to Jerusalem: behold thy gods, O Israel, which brought thee up out of the land of Egypt.” ( I Kings 12:28-33). Two of the priests under the Mosiacal system thought they would do what was convenient and “offered strange fire before the Lord, which he commanded them not” (Lev. 10:1). The very next verse says, “And there went out fire from the Lord, and devoured them, and they died before the Lord” (Lev. 10:2). To please God we must do exactly as He commanded and not that which might be more suitable to us. No one man or group of men have a right to change the law of God. God commanded a burial in water, and this is what must be done.

The book, My Catholic Faith, on page 270 gives the present day practice of the Catholic Church on baptism. It says, “How would you give baptism? I would give baptism by pouring ordinary water on the forehead of the person to be baptized…” The Bible clearly teaches that baptism is a burial in water, not a pouring of water. Our English word “baptism” is from the Greek word “baptisma” and means “immersion, submersion and emergence”

Catholic officials readily admit that infant baptism cannot be proven by the Bible. Notice the following:

“There is no express mention of the baptism of infants in the New Testament” (Question Box, p. 23). “It is difficult to give strict proof from the scriptures in favor of it” (Catholic Dictionary, p. 61).

“Baptism took place by immersion in ancient times.” (New Interpretation of the Mass, p. 120).

Catholic controversialists soon proved to the Protestants that to be logical and consistent they must admit unwritten tradition.

Like many other doctrines of the Catholic Church, the baptism of infants slowly and gradually developed. Again, notice the following:

“Ecclesiastical custom with regard to the administration of Baptism has undergone a change in the course of history. Whereas the early Church baptized adults only, the baptism of children soon became the usual practice.” (Pastoral Medicine, pp. 32-33).
 
Randy, my friend, the problem is you cannot prove all of these “unwritten” teachings came directly from the apostles. There’s no way to check it.
Let’s review the situation…

John > Polycarp > Irenaeus

Now put yourself in Polycarp’s sandals (you’re about to be martyred!)

John > Yankee_drifter > Irenaeus

Would YOU have been paying close attention to everything that John taught you? Would YOU have been making sure that Irenaeus was taking notes when you taught him?

You bet you would, and I think we can be confident that Polycarp, Clement, Ignatius and all the rest were extrremely careful about handing on the faith from the Apostles accurately. After all, they considered it to be the WORD OF GOD!

However, I wonder if you are not now somehow in a bind…you see, you cannot prove that many of the books of the New Testament were written by the people we consider to be the authors today. Did Matthew write Matthew? The text doesn’t say.

Consequently…how did you say it?..ah…“you cannot prove that all these [written] teachings came directly from the Apostles.” You believe it but you cannot prove it.

And you believe it because an infallible Church told you that these books were inspired. Well, technically, the Church told the spiritual forefathers of your non-Catholic denomination that they were inspired. So, while you accept SOME things that the Catholic Church has declared to be true infallibly (like the canon), you have decided on purely partisan grounds to reject others (like Purgatory).

And you reject Purgatory simply because the spiritual forefathers of your non-Catholic denomination decided that it did not suit their fancy. Oh, they said it was not biblical, but they (and you) admit they were not infallible. But you lap up their teaching anyway.

So, you reject the Sacred Tradition of the Apostolic Church that has proven itself to be infallible on at least ONE occasion while accepting the mere human tradition of the “church” which has never claimed or shown itself to be infallible nor given a flip about apostolicity.

Those aren’t the kind of odds I’d take to Vegas, but hey, it’s your money. 😛
 
Perhaps they are protestants because they *don’t *believe in Purgatory?

😉
 
Perhaps they are protestants because they *don’t *believe in Purgatory?
Purgatory is just a side issue. It comes up because it’s easier to talk about purgatory than to deal with the real issue of authority.
 
I meant in a funny way that protestantism may be their purgatory, God gave them to protestantism because they did’nt believe in purgatory…:). Not important though. Protestantism is confusing and so diverse, it must be very disconcerting and trying.
 
You say you don’t believe in a works gospel, yet you are depending on a sacramental system, are you not? You depend on your church and the rules and rituals of this church. You believe membership in this church guarantees a ticket to heaven. This is why some of you say they’re not concerned about their salvation. Catholics say they believe they are redeemed by the death of Christ, but at the other side of their mouth they say that Christ merely opened the door to heaven so that God can pour out grace to help you obey this system, and salvation is conditioned on what one does or does not do in the sacramental system.
What exactly do you mean by a “sacramental system”, yankee?

Also, does your church observe the Lord’s Supper, as Jesus commanded? What about the “laying of hands” to “ordain” elders? Are these not rituals?

(As Randy Carson alluded to, we Catholics must ask Protestants these questions about exactly what practices your church observes, as there are an obscenely large number of Protestant churches, each professing different belief systems based on their fallible pastor’s interpretation of Scripture.

We simply cannot know what your pastor has decided Matt 16:18 means, or Luke 1:8 or Genesis 3:17… however, if you want to know what our Church professes, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church. 👍)

Finally, yankee, you alluded to “essentials” in doctrine and were asked, twice, where these “essentials” are referenced in Scripture, but have not yet responded. Is this because it’s not in Scripture but, rather, is a man-made tradition you’ve accepted from your fallible pastor?
 
There is also no such thing as unanimous consent among church Fathers.
Sure there is. You just don’t understand what the phrase means. We Americans tend to be very analytical and precise in our language. Other cultures are less so. However, let me use an analogy in an attempt to explain this.

Imagine that the local Rotary club has been discussing the idea of building a playground for the kids in town. All the costs and options and pros and cons have been presented and discussed. Now, it’s time for the vote.

The president says, “All in favor, say ‘Aye’.”

“Aye.”

“All opposed.”

“Nay.”

“The Ayes have it.” Later, the local newspaper reports that the vote passed unanimously, and the playground gets built. But it wasn’t REALLY unanimous, was it?

Conversely, the President could have called the roll of all the members and recorded carefully who voted and how they voted…just like Congress. There, if a measure passes 99-1, it is called an “overwhelming majority” but not “unanimous consent.”

That’s how we modern Americans view and do things.

However, that is somewhat beside the point. The Church listens carefully to all of her sons with regard to matters of doctrine. And then she chooses which of their ideas to accept and which to reject. It does not matter whether the majority believe an idea or not…what matters is what is true.

For example, at one time, the Arian heresy overwhelmed the Church; there were more Arian Bishops than orthodox Bishops. Athanasius held out against them all, and in the end, Arianism was defeated.
Over the years, different fathers, popes and councils said different things.
Yet this is crucial…not one pope or council has ever, EVER, contradicted another when teaching formally on matters of faith and morals. Not one.

I’ve heard it said that this would be like a baseball team playing for 2,000 years without a single error. It’s not humanly possible, is it?

That’s because infallibility is not a human thing - it’s a God thing.

Jesus, the Good Shepherd, protects His flock from ever being led astray by preventing the Church from teaching error.
 
Quote:
The Church has baptized infants from the very beginning. It is part Apostolic Tradition.
Randy this is simply not true. You are merely repeating what others have said to you.
As are you since you weren’t there 2,000 years ago, either. 😛
Please read these catholic sources:
Okay. Let’s go…
“Baptism used to be given by placing the person to be baptized completely in the water: it was done in this way in the Catholic Church for 1200 years.” (Adult Catechism, pp. 56-57).
Nothing about infant baptism there. Next.
“Ecclesiastical custom with regard to the administration of Baptism has undergone a change in the course of history. Whereas the early Church baptized adults only, the baptism of children soon became the usual practice.” (Pastoral Medicine, pp. 32-33).
Are you personally familiar with this book? Have you read it? This is more Internet cut-and-paste rubbish. Here is the full citation:

“Ecclesiastical custom with regard to the administration of Baptism has undergone a change in the course of history. Whereas the early Church baptized adults only, the baptism of children soon became the usual practice.” (Sanford, Alexander E., MD, Pastoral Medicine: Handbook for the Catholic Clergy, 1904, p 32-33)

This is a “Catholic source”? Does Dr. Sanford speak for the Catholic Church or have any Church authority whasoever? Nope. Next.
“The church at one time practiced immersion. This was up to the thirteenth century. The Council of Ravenna, in 1311, changed the form from immersion to pouring.” (Our Faith and the Facts, p. 399).
The Catholic Church did practice immersion at one time AND STILL DOES. Three forms of baptism are valid: immersion, pouring and sprinkling. Can you prove from the Bible alone that those who were baptized were not baptized by sprinkling or pouring? Where, for example, was the Philippian jailer baptized? IN THE JAIL AT MIDNIGHT? Not in a pool or river. Paul poured some water over his head…and the heads of all his household…kids included.

Although Latin-rite Catholics are usually baptized by infusion (pouring), they know that immersion (dunking) and sprinkling are also valid ways to baptize. Fundamentalists, however, regard only baptism by immersion as true baptism, concluding that most Catholics are not validly baptized at all.

Although the New Testament contains no explicit instructions on how physically to administer the water of baptism, Fundamentalists argue that the Greek word baptizo found in the New Testament means “to immerse.” They also maintain that only immersion reflects the symbolic significance of being “buried” and “raised” with Christ (see Romans 6:3-4).

It is true that *baptizo *often means immersion. For example, the Greek version of the Old Testament tells us that Naaman, at Elisha’s direction, “went down and dipped himself [the Greek word here is *baptizo] seven times in the Jordan” (2 Kgs. 5:14, Septuagint, emphasis added).

But immersion is not the only meaning of baptizo. Sometimes it just means washing up. Thus Luke 11:38 reports that, when Jesus ate at a Pharisee’s house, “[t]he Pharisee was astonished to see that he did not first wash baptizo] before dinner.” They did not practice immersion before dinner, but, according to Mark, the Pharisees “do not eat unless they wash nipto] their hands, observing the tradition of the elders; and when they come from the market place, they do not eat unless they wash themselves baptizo]” (Mark 7:3–4a, emphasis added). So baptizo can mean cleansing or ritual washing as well as immersion.

A similar range of meanings can be seen when baptizo is used metaphorically. Sometimes a figurative “baptism” is a sort of “immersion”; but not always. For example, speaking of his future suffering and death, Jesus said, “I have a baptism baptisma] to be baptized baptizo] with; and how I am constrained until it is accomplished!” (Luke 12:50) This might suggest that Christ would be “immersed” in suffering. On the other hand, consider the case of being “baptized with the Holy Spirit.”

In Acts 1:4–5 Jesus charged his disciples “not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father, which, he said, ‘you heard from me, for John baptized with water, but before many days you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’” Did this mean they would be “immersed” in the Spirit? No: three times Acts 2 states that the Holy Spirit was poured out on them when Pentecost came (2:17, 18, 33, emphasis added). Later Peter referred to the Spirit falling upon them, and also on others after Pentecost, explicitly identifying these events with the promise of being “baptized with the Holy Spirit” (Acts 11:15–17). These passages demonstrate that the meaning of baptizo is broad enough to include “pouring.”

(cont.)
 
“The church at one time practiced immersion. This was up to the thirteenth century. The Council of Ravenna, in 1311, changed the form from immersion to pouring.” (Our Faith and the Facts, p. 399).

The following Catholic official openly acknowledges that the Catholic Church changed immersion to pouring simply because it was more convenient. “The present mode of pouring arose from the many inconveniences connected with immersion, frequent mention of which are made in the writings of the early Church Fathers.” (Question Box, p. 366).
I want to respond to these two quotes jointly since they are making the same point. My response will be to simply direct your attention to an ancient Christian document known as The Didache which may have been written as early as 70 AD.

That’s right, Yankee_drifter, The Didache may have been written before all of the books of the New Testament were completed. Now, I will readily concede that the Didache is not inspired scripture. However, all I ask is that you consider it as a purely historical document which provides evidence about the practices of the early Christian Church, okay? Fair enough?

The Didache
After the foregoing instructions, baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living [running] water. If you have no living water, then baptize in other water, and if you are not able in cold, then in warm. If you have neither, pour water three times on the head, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Before baptism, let the one baptizing and the one to be baptized fast, as also any others who are able. Command the one who is to be baptized to fast beforehand for one or two days (Didache 7:1 [ca. **A.D. 70]).

Running water is best. Pour if you have to. Pouring is not immersion, is it? The early church preferrred immersion (as we still do), but pouring and sprinkling are accepted by the Church that has the authority to bind and loose.
The wicked king Jereboam made things convenient for the people by setting up idols and saying, “It is too much for you to go up to Jerusalem: behold thy gods, O Israel, which brought thee up out of the land of Egypt.” ( I Kings 12:28-33). Two of the priests under the Mosiacal system thought they would do what was convenient and “offered strange fire before the Lord, which he commanded them not” (Lev. 10:1). The very next verse says, “And there went out fire from the Lord, and devoured them, and they died before the Lord” (Lev. 10:2). To please God we must do exactly as He commanded and not that which might be more suitable to us. No one man or group of men have a right to change the law of God. God commanded a burial in water, and this is what must be done.
This is just empty rhetoric, isn’t it? :sad_yes: Next.
The book, My Catholic Faith, on page 270 gives the present day practice of the Catholic Church on baptism. It says, “How would you give baptism? I would give baptism by pouring ordinary water on the forehead of the person to be baptized…” The Bible clearly teaches that baptism is a burial in water, not a pouring of water. Our English word “baptism” is from the Greek word “baptisma” and means “immersion, submersion and emergence”
I already “buried” this argument with verses showing the full range of meaning of baptizo in my previous post. Next.

(cont.)
 
Parenthetically, does it occur to anyone besides me that all of this anti-Catholic nonsense is not motivated merely out of love for Jesus or for Catholics who are “not saved”?

It is SATANIC.
 
Let’s review the situation…

John > Polycarp > Irenaeus

Now put yourself in Polycarp’s sandals (you’re about to be martyred!)

John > Yankee_drifter > Irenaeus

Would YOU have been paying close attention to everything that John taught you? Would YOU have been making sure that Irenaeus was taking notes when you taught him?

You bet you would, and I think we can be confident that Polycarp, Clement, Ignatius and all the rest were extrremely careful about handing on the faith from the Apostles accurately. After all, they considered it to be the WORD OF GOD!

However, I wonder if you are not now somehow in a bind…you see, you cannot prove that many of the books of the New Testament were written by the people we consider to be the authors today. Did Matthew write Matthew? The text doesn’t say.

Consequently…how did you say it?..ah…“you cannot prove that all these [written] teachings came directly from the Apostles.” You believe it but you cannot prove it.

And you believe it because an infallible Church told you that these books were inspired. Well, technically, the Church told the spiritual forefathers of your non-Catholic denomination that they were inspired. So, while you accept SOME things that the Catholic Church has declared to be true infallibly (like the canon), you have decided on purely partisan grounds to reject others (like Purgatory).

And you reject Purgatory simply because the spiritual forefathers of your non-Catholic denomination decided that it did not suit their fancy. Oh, they said it was not biblical, but they (and you) admit they were not infallible. But you lap up their teaching anyway.

So, you reject the Sacred Tradition of the Apostolic Church that has proven itself to be infallible on at least ONE occasion while accepting the mere human tradition of the “church” which has never claimed or shown itself to be infallible nor given a flip about apostolicity.

Those aren’t the kind of odds I’d take to Vegas, but hey, it’s your money. 😛
And Yankee if all of this is not enough, we have the Church. Remember what Jesus Christ left us to lead us to the fullness of the truth.

Remember
Isaiah 9:6-7 Christs goverment there will be no end
Daniel 2:44 Gods kingdom whall not be destroyed
Luke 1:32 No end to Christ’s kingdom

Remember the Church that is Perpetual, Etenal Un-ending.
 
Catholic officials readily admit that infant baptism cannot be proven by the Bible.
This is incorrect. There is no explicit reference to infant baptism…or the trinity…or the canon of scripture itself…

However, we can arrive at an understanding of these things by reasoning about the things that are revealed in scripture.

Oh, one more thing, Yankee_drifter: will you readily admit that there is no explicit prohibition against infant baptism in the Bible?

Next.
Notice the following:

“There is no express mention of the baptism of infants in the New Testament” (Question Box, p. 23). “It is difficult to give strict proof from the scriptures in favor of it” (Catholic Dictionary, p. 61).
Agreed. There is no “express mention” supporting a “strict proof”. However, we can REASON about this, can we not?

The Case for Infant Baptism
  1. The Church was given all authority to bind and loose on earth; “all authority” includes the authority to baptize infants.
  2. No verse of scripture explicitly forbids the baptism of infants. (ie, Thou shalt not…)
  3. Baptism is called the “circumcision of Christ”. Circumcision was the ritual of initiation by which Jewish parents brought their children into the Old Covenant; baptism is the ritual of initiation by which Christian parents bring their children into the Church.
  4. Numerous passages in the New Testament reveal that whole households were baptized (one after midnight); it is likely that these households included children below the age of reason.
  5. Historical evidence shows that the early Church practiced infant baptism.
Concerning that last point, here are more of the Early Church Fathers (you’re starting to HATE these guys, aren’t you?) on the subject of infant baptism:

Hippolytus (170-236 AD)

“And first baptize the little ones; and if they can speak for themselves, they shall do so; if not, their parents or other relatives shall speak for them.” (*The Apostolic Tradition *21:16 [A.D. 215]).

Origen

“The Church has received from the apostles the custom of administering baptism even to infants. For those who have been entrusted with the secrets of divine mysteries, knew very well that all are tainted with the stain of original sin, which must be washed off by water and spirit” (Commentary on Romans, 5.9).

“Every soul that is born into flesh is soiled by the filth of wickedness and sin. . . . In the Church, baptism is given for the remission of sins, and, according to the usage of the Church, baptism is given even to infants. If there were nothing in infants which required the remission of sins and nothing in them pertinent to forgiveness, the grace of baptism would seem superfluous” (*Homilies on Leviticus *8:3 [A.D. 248]).

“The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to infants. The apostles, to whom were committed the secrets of the divine sacraments, knew there are in everyone innate strains of [original] sin, which must be washed away through water and the Spirit” (*Commentaries on Romans *5:9 [A.D. 248]).

Wow. They wrote these things before Constantine corrupted the Church in 313 AD. 😃

Next.
“Baptism took place by immersion in ancient times.” (New Interpretation of the Mass, p. 120).
Normally, yes. Unless pouring was necessary as I showed previously.

Next.
Catholic controversialists soon proved to the Protestants that to be logical and consistent they must admit unwritten tradition.
Oooh…unwritten tradition. :eek:

[2 Thessalonians 2:15](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2 Thessalonians+2:15&version=NIV)
So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the traditions we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter.

Next.
Like many other doctrines of the Catholic Church, the baptism of infants slowly and gradually developed. Again, notice the following:

“Ecclesiastical custom with regard to the administration of Baptism has undergone a change in the course of history. Whereas the early Church baptized adults only, the baptism of children soon became the usual practice.” (Pastoral Medicine, pp. 32-33).
Dr. Whats-his-name again? Yankee…you need to do better than this.

Next.

Oh, we’re done. 🤷

Gee, at some point, you have got to come to the conclusion that Catholics have a lot of STRONG answers to all your questions.

Troubling, isn’t it? 👍
 
This church is still in its teaching phase.
Is the Church still not in this mode … it always teaches and instructs.
Faith and works are mentioned repeatedly, but he presents them not as conflicting, but as complementary. James said faith may be genuine or false. They profess faith in the Lord Jesus, and yet act like those in the world.
Is this still not an issue … genuine faith or not? So it seems safe to say that merely professing faith in Jesus is not enough?
Before salvation, the Jews believed in the efficacy of works.
They were under the Law so their confusion seems understandable … something new and radical was being taught.
Now some were reacting at the opposite extreme, imagining that works plays no part in the life of the new believer. James retorts that the kind of faith that does not produce works is a spurious faith.
So faith alone is a spurious faith? Faith alone is a dead faith an unsaving faith.
But James **never said ** that works justify us before God; for God can see the faith without its works.
So now you say that God can see the true faith pronounced without the works. So though no works are present God knows whether true faith is present or not? It is really not a question of what God can see but how that witness works in the world.
A true Christian bears fruit. An unsaved person (i.e. the world) cannot produce the works of the Spirit.
So faith and works are together. I disagree that an unsaved person cannot produce good works. It is by grace that you even got faith so God can give grace to anyone at any time … God is not limited in the dispensation of grace. Now a person graced with faith knows the source of that faith and the source of grace.
You say you don’t believe in a works gospel, yet you are depending on a sacramental system, are you not?
Sacraments are not a system. We are a Sacramental Church …yes. Sacraments are nothing but God’s grace delivered to the faithful. ?
You depend on your church and the rules and rituals of this church.
The rituals deliver what they say. What part of the ritual of the Mass offends you? What part of confessing one’s sins offends you?
You believe membership in this church guarantees a ticket to heaven.
Where have you seen this written and where do you get this notion. If anything Catholics are bashed for not believing we are truly saved and can lose their salvation.
This is why some of you say they’re not concerned about their salvation.
When one lives their lives under grace … what is there to be afraid of?
Catholics say they believe they are redeemed by the death of Christ, but at the other side of their mouth they say that Christ merely opened the door to heaven so that God can pour out grace to help you obey this system, and salvation is conditioned on what one does or does not do in the sacramental system.
This is a false claim and not what Catholics believe.
We are saved by grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone. No where in the Scriptures are we told that our salvation depends on our works. Any works, whether it be all those traditions of the church or whatever.
Faith is never alone … so why do you write this. You said above faith and works are complentary. They are two sides of the same coin. You cannot have true faith without works and I quote you, “James retorts that the kind of faith that does not produce works is a spurious faith.” So how can it be faith alone. A mere pronouncement of faith is not enough … in fact it is just the beginning. Faith alone is not only dead faith but is unscriptual.
The works we are given to do, are works assigned to us by the Holy Spirit. But these are not salvation works. They are works that glorify our Father. This is James.
I guess you better remind God that your works are being done not so I can get saved.
Please show me where Jesus ever gave us a sacramental system? Where did He ever say that a priest, with a victim (Him) and sacrifices was to be repeated until the end of the world.
You are serious aren’t you … open a thread on Catholic sacraments. This one is way too off topic but a good question.
 
Code:
Unlike protestantism, the catholic is **required** to believe all the teachings of his church or be guilty of mortal sin.
It appears that you have been misinformed about the CAtholic faith, Jacob. Do you even know what a mortal sin is? Do you realize that most of the people that reject the Apostolic Teaching don’t even realize they have done so?
Unlike Protestantism, missing church on sunday for the catholic is a sin.
Clearly you were poorly catechized, or misinformed.
Unlike Protestantism, which teaches that Christ’s death on the cross was sufficient, perfect and complete, the catholic believes that Jesus did not fully redeem the sinner,
This is just a blatant falsehood. Why are you posting this stuff here?
but man must expiate his own sins through a process of works that extend throughout one’s life and even after death.
There is nothing man can do to expiate his own sins.
Any hope of trusting in Christ’s atonement is nullified by what he (the sinner) must personally do to atone or expiate his own sin,
This is a ridiculous statement. It is like saying, “any hope of obtaining my winnings in the lottery is nullified because I have to go fill out the paperwork to cash in the ticket someone bought for me”.
such as penance, rosary, earthly suffering, gaining indulgences, many forms of prayers including those to saints and saying of masses and other good works.
None of these things are the basis of salvation, Jacob.
Unlike Protestantism, the Catholic church curses those who believe what Paul said in Eph 2:8,9 “For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast.”
No, we don’t. We just don’t separate these verses from the one that comes after them. 😃
Unlike Protestantism, the catholic church has placed many curses on those who believe differently, yet God said we are never to curse anyone.
To pronounce that one is cursed because one has departed from the only place where one can be redeemed from the curse is not the same as cursing them. As Jesus said, “those who do not believe are condemned already”. We enter life into an accursed state, and can return to it at any time. The church recognizes this, but is not the source of it.
So, for you to be a true catholic, you absolutely must believe all the teachings of your church which claims to have an infallible Magesterium and it alone can accurately interpret the Scriptures.
Finally! A true statement! I am glad that your whole post was not a total wash. 👍
 
What did Christ say in Matt 7 to those who had put their faith in something other than in Him alone, such as religion and works of that religion? “Depart from me! I never knew you!” Some were already calling Him Lord. but would later refuse to accept the completed work of the cross. What then is the will of the Father mentioned in Matt 7:21? Jesus isn’t speaking of works. He is speaking of ‘will.’
But you stop too soon! If you continue reading the next few versus you get to the crux of the story.

“24"Therefore everyone who hears these words of mine and puts them into practice is like a wise man who built his house on the rock. 25The rain came down, the streams rose, and the winds blew and beat against that house; yet it did not fall, because it had its foundation on the rock. 26But everyone who hears these words of mine** and does not put them into practice is like a foolish man **who built his house on sand. 27The rain came down, the streams rose, and the winds blew and beat against that house, and it fell with a great crash.”

The Protestants I talk to always leave out this part!

Thanks
 
Certainly. You are in this world to prepare yourself for eternal life.
All you need to know is that the very least hindrence to entering eternal life must be removed; as per those verses you referenced,
Jesus says nothing about preparing oneself for eternal life in Matt. 5:25-26. He does, however in Jn. 3:14-18:"As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up;
so that whoever believes will in Him have eternal life. For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him. He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God
."Again in Jn. 5:24:"Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life."It looks to me that Jesus taught that one who has believed in Him HAS eternal life. The only hindrance for receiving this LIFE is unbelief. To not believe the gospel message of what He has DONE, once for all, through His sacrificial death and bodily resurrection.

The Apostle Paul follows through with his teaching on eternal life and states:Rom 6:23 "For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord."In context Paul is stating that death came to all of us as a consequence of Adam’s sin. But eternal life is gifted to the believer in Jesus Christ our Lord.

Matt. 5:25-26 mentions nothing about eternal life nor one suffering in the flames of purgatory as a payment for not making friends with someone before he goes to court.

You see what I mean that you READ INTO verses your fully formed doctrine, but the verse itself states nothing of the sort?
 
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