A
abucs
Guest
ETE,
you ask me,
“but what does it do in the historical facts that the doctrine of JESUS IS GOD appears only in 110AD”
well for a start i raised many points in that post. specifically the history, authenticity of the early church compared to INC and the weakness of using the bible as the supreme authority.
But let us forget all that, as you have done, and just concentrate on your question.
I have provided a link previously just working from the scriptures for the case that Jesus was seen as part of the one true God.
Now we can each take a different angle on that and with anything to do with the scriptures, it is an individual interpretation. I think it is sufficient to stick with (how i see it) the churches teaching all along that Jesus is part of the one God.
You have to at least concede from the link i posted that the idea that Jesus is God can be very definitely read into the writings - at the very LEAST.
Father and i are one.
no one knows the father but the son.
No one comes to the father but through the son.
Came down from Heaven.
Before Abraham was, I AM.
the prophets saw my day and rejoiced.
I AM the alpha and the omega.
the recorded facts that the Sanhedrin found Jesus guilty of ‘making himself equal with God’.
power to lay down his life and raise it up again.
power to forgive sins.
calling himself the Lord of the Sabbath.
salvation is through Jesus alone.
Apostles worshipping Jesus.
Driving out demons in Jesus’ name.
and many many others supplied by the link.
You have to at the very LEAST accept that the idea of Jesus was God can be - at the very LEAST, read into it.
So do any of the writers say Jesus is not God. No they don’t. would John write - “In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the Word was God. and he was made flesh and dwelt among us”.
would he write in his first letter that we saw and touched this Word of God.
Would he write this knowing that the idea of Jesus was God was at the very LEAST easily assumed from the other writings but was wrong ? would he not also think that he was contributing to the wrongness ? Wouldn’t he want to clearly state Jesus is not God instead of trying to explain the opposite ?
It does not make sense. Instead, none of the writers say Jesus was not God. Because there is such strong evidence, you would think that they would make that clear, but instead they don’t say Jesus is not God but instead record the events to show he was.
When in 110 as you say the doctrine of Jesus’ divinity began, was there any widespread disagreement among Christians about this NEW doctrine ?
show me where.
If Christians had the idea of Jesus was not God and somebody suddenly invented it in 110 then surely there would have been evidence whether written of historical of the church splitting in two and argueing about this. There is no evidence of that.
the only evidence is you, 2000 years later saying hey, that’s when it was invented.
Wouldn’t the Roman state who were killing Christians left right and centre point out - hey, you guys didn’t believe Jesus was God and now suddenly from 110 you have changed your mind. here is the evidence. here is the misunderstanding. You Christians believing Jesus is God have changed your minds. there is no evidence of that. If it were true, the Romans would have made the obvious point to discredit Christians who were being fed to the lions and set aflame at the state.
you say the doctrine was invented in 110. But look at your own word - doctrine. you have doctrines when you need them. before that everybody knows these things. when the church is growing and formalising and the last of the apostles has just died then that is when you need doctrine. That is, a formal declaration.
And where does this formal doctrine come from ?
You think it was just invented, and then blindly accepted by Christians, but that is not supported by common sense and history in my opinion.
you ask me,
“but what does it do in the historical facts that the doctrine of JESUS IS GOD appears only in 110AD”
well for a start i raised many points in that post. specifically the history, authenticity of the early church compared to INC and the weakness of using the bible as the supreme authority.
But let us forget all that, as you have done, and just concentrate on your question.
I have provided a link previously just working from the scriptures for the case that Jesus was seen as part of the one true God.
Now we can each take a different angle on that and with anything to do with the scriptures, it is an individual interpretation. I think it is sufficient to stick with (how i see it) the churches teaching all along that Jesus is part of the one God.
You have to at least concede from the link i posted that the idea that Jesus is God can be very definitely read into the writings - at the very LEAST.
Father and i are one.
no one knows the father but the son.
No one comes to the father but through the son.
Came down from Heaven.
Before Abraham was, I AM.
the prophets saw my day and rejoiced.
I AM the alpha and the omega.
the recorded facts that the Sanhedrin found Jesus guilty of ‘making himself equal with God’.
power to lay down his life and raise it up again.
power to forgive sins.
calling himself the Lord of the Sabbath.
salvation is through Jesus alone.
Apostles worshipping Jesus.
Driving out demons in Jesus’ name.
and many many others supplied by the link.
You have to at the very LEAST accept that the idea of Jesus was God can be - at the very LEAST, read into it.
So do any of the writers say Jesus is not God. No they don’t. would John write - “In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the Word was God. and he was made flesh and dwelt among us”.
would he write in his first letter that we saw and touched this Word of God.
Would he write this knowing that the idea of Jesus was God was at the very LEAST easily assumed from the other writings but was wrong ? would he not also think that he was contributing to the wrongness ? Wouldn’t he want to clearly state Jesus is not God instead of trying to explain the opposite ?
It does not make sense. Instead, none of the writers say Jesus was not God. Because there is such strong evidence, you would think that they would make that clear, but instead they don’t say Jesus is not God but instead record the events to show he was.
When in 110 as you say the doctrine of Jesus’ divinity began, was there any widespread disagreement among Christians about this NEW doctrine ?
show me where.
If Christians had the idea of Jesus was not God and somebody suddenly invented it in 110 then surely there would have been evidence whether written of historical of the church splitting in two and argueing about this. There is no evidence of that.
the only evidence is you, 2000 years later saying hey, that’s when it was invented.
Wouldn’t the Roman state who were killing Christians left right and centre point out - hey, you guys didn’t believe Jesus was God and now suddenly from 110 you have changed your mind. here is the evidence. here is the misunderstanding. You Christians believing Jesus is God have changed your minds. there is no evidence of that. If it were true, the Romans would have made the obvious point to discredit Christians who were being fed to the lions and set aflame at the state.
you say the doctrine was invented in 110. But look at your own word - doctrine. you have doctrines when you need them. before that everybody knows these things. when the church is growing and formalising and the last of the apostles has just died then that is when you need doctrine. That is, a formal declaration.
And where does this formal doctrine come from ?
You think it was just invented, and then blindly accepted by Christians, but that is not supported by common sense and history in my opinion.